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xiaoe · 2024年07月24日

我的算法

NO.PZ2023040701000113

问题如下:

FIQ Bank is a highly rated corporate and institutional bank that operates a client facing credit default swap (CDS) desk. Larry Eckle is a CDS client strategist. Mark Priore is FIQ’s chief CDS trader. Eckle and Priore are meeting with Brian Bregen, a portfolio manager for BLB Fund, to discuss investment and trading strategies for bonds, CDSs, and equities.

Bregen begins the discussion by asking for a refresher on basic CDS concepts and parameters. Eckle replies that a CDS includes both a premium leg and a payment leg and that expected loss is among the functions that affect its price. Eckle provides information for a bond issued by Apollo Company.

Exhibit 1 Information for Apollo Bond

Based on the information in Exhibit 1, the expected loss for Apollo bond is likely closest to:

选项:

A.

$35.28.

B.

$48.03.

C.

$90.00.

解释:

Correct Answer: B

Expected loss = Summation of probability of default × Loss given default for each discrete cash flow, as illustrated


Calculation:

Cash flow (CF): $50.00 interest coupons, $1,000.00 principal repayment

Expected loss (EL) = CF × Conditional probability of default (PD) × Loss given default (LGD), where LGD = 1 – Recovery rate

Conditional probability of default:

Year 1 PD = 2.0% = 2% Hazard rate

[98% no default in Year 1 (100% – 2% PD)].

Year 2 PD = 4.45% = 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2)

[(2.5% Hazard rate × 98% No default Y1); 95.50% no default in Year 2 (100% – 4.5% PD)].

Year 3 PD = 7.317% = 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2) + 2.867% (Y3)

[(3.0% Hazard rate × 0.955 No default Y2); 92.684% no default in Year 3 (100% – 7.317%PD)].

Expected loss = $48.03, where

Year 1 = $50.00 CF × (2.00% Y1 PD × 0.60 LGD) = $0.60.

Year 2 = $50.00 CF × (4.45% Y2 PD × 0.60 LGD) = $1.34.

Year 3 = $1,050.00 CF × (7.316% Y3 PD × 0.60 LGD) = $46.09.

A is incorrect. An expected loss of $35.28 incorrectly presumes an equivalent hazard rate of 2% for each year:

1 Probability of survival represents the probability of no default: 0.98 × 0.98 ×0.98 = 0.94119.

2 Probability of default: 1.0 – Probability of survival = 1 – 0.94119 = 0.058810 = 5.8810%.

3 Expected loss = Probability of default × Loss given default × Face amount = 5.8810% × 60% × $1,000 = $35.28.

C is incorrect. An expected loss of $90.00 is incorrectly determined by the following calculation: $1,000 (face amount of the bond) × 15.00% (summation of the three years of 5.00% interest coupons) × (1.0 – 0.40 Recovery rate).

我算

第一年违约:2%

第二年违约:98%*2.5%

第三年违约:98%*97.5%*3%

这三个年头不管哪个年头违约,损失都是1050*60%

我相当于穷举了所有破产的可能性并且加在一起求期望,

所以最后的结果就是(2%+98%*2.5%+98%*97.5%*3%)*1050*60%=46.09,请问这个逻辑错误在哪。

2 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2024年07月25日

是的,没给折现率就不用管折现的事了

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2024年07月24日

同学你好,逻辑错误是第一年和第二年如果违约的话,损失不只是1050,漏算了期间coupon。

xiaoe · 2024年07月25日

指后面几年的cp么,如果用从后往前折现的方法,这里好像又没给折现率。还是说也不需要折现率,就是数值相加即可。

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NO.PZ2023040701000113 问题如下 FIQ Bank is a highly ratecorporate aninstitutionbank thoperates a client facing cret fault sw(C) sk. Larry Eckle is a C client strategist. Mark Priore is FIQ’s chief C trar. Eckle anPriore are meeting with BriBregen, a portfolio manager for BLB Fun to scuss investment antrang strategies for bon, Cs, anequities. Bregen begins the scussion asking for a refresher on basic C concepts anparameters. Eckle replies tha C inclus both a premium leg ana payment leg anthexpecteloss is among the functions thaffeits price. Eckle provis information for a bonissueApollo Company. Exhibit 1 Information for Apollo Bonaseon theinformation in Exhibit 1, the expecteloss for Apollo bonis likely closestto: A.$35.28. B.$48.03. C.$90.00. CorreAnswer: BExpecteloss = Summation of probability of fault × Loss given fault for eascrete cash flow, illustratealculation:Cash flow (CF):$50.00 interest coupons, $1,000.00 principrepaymentExpecteloss (EL)= × Contionprobability of fault (P × Loss given fault (LG,where LG= 1 – Recovery rateContionalprobability of fault:Ye1 P= 2.0% =2% Hazarrate[98% no fault inYe1 (100% – 2% P].Ye2 P= 4.45%= 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2)[(2.5% Hazarrate× 98% No fault Y1); 95.50% no fault in Ye2 (100% – 4.5% P].Ye3 P= 7.317%= 2.0% (Y1) + 2.45% (Y2) + 2.867% (Y3)[(3.0% Hazarrate× 0.955 No fault Y2); 92.684% no fault in Ye3 (100% – 7.317%P].Expecteloss =$48.03, whereYe1 = $50.00 CF× (2.00% Y1 P× 0.60 LG = $0.60.Ye2 = $50.00 CF× (4.45% Y2 P× 0.60 LG = $1.34.Ye3 = $1,050.00× (7.316% Y3 P× 0.60 LG = $46.09.A is incorrect. Anexpecteloss of $35.28 incorrectly presumes equivalent hazarrate of 2%for eayear:1 Probability ofsurvivrepresents the probability of no fault: 0.98 × 0.98 ×0.98 = 0.94119.2 Probability offault: 1.0 – Probability of surviv= 1 – 0.94119 = 0.058810 = 5.8810%.3 Expecteloss =Probability of fault × Loss given fault × Faamount = 5.8810% × 60% ×$1,000 = $35.28.C is incorrect. Anexpecteloss of $90.00 is incorrectly terminethe following calculation:$1,000 (faamount of the bon × 15.00% (summation of the three years of5.00% interest coupons) × (1.0 – 0.40 Recovery rate). 为什么不能直接计算不破产的概率,用1减掉这个概率就可以等于破产的概率(不管第几年破产都在这个概率里头了),然后再来计算loss

2023-08-26 11:57 1 · 回答

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2023-07-26 22:21 1 · 回答

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