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mino酱是个小破货 · 2024年07月11日

c也可以说的通,谢谢

NO.PZ2023032703000034

问题如下:

An asset manager is asked to build and manage a portfolio of fixed-income bonds to retire multiple corporate debt liabilities. The debt liabilities have a market value of GBP 50,652,108, a modified duration of 7.15, and a BPV of GBP 36,216. The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bonds having a market value of GBP 64,271,055, a modified duration of 3.75, and a BPV of GBP 24,102.

The initial surplus of GBP 13,618,947 and the negative duration gap of GBP 12,114 are intentional. The surplus allows the manager to pursue a contingent immunization strategy to retire the debt at, hopefully, a lower cost than a more conservative duration-matching approach.

The duration gap requires the manager to buy, or go long, interest rate futures contracts to close the gap. The manager can choose to over-hedge or under-hedge, however, depending on market circumstances.

The futures contract that the manager buys is based on 10-year gilts having a par value of GBP 100,000. It is estimated to have a BPV of GBP 98.2533 per contract. Currently, the asset manager has purchased, or gone long, 160 contracts. Which statement best describes the asset manager’s hedging strategy and the held view on future 10-year gilt interest rates? The asset manager is:

选项:

A.

over-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be rising.

B.

over-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be falling.

C.

under-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be rising.

解释:

B is correct. The asset manager is over-hedging because the rate view is that 10-year yields will be falling.

First calculate the number of contracts (Nf) needed to fully hedge (or immunize) the debt liabilities. The general relationship is:

Asset portfolio BPV + (Nf × Futures BPV) = Liability portfolio BPV.

Asset portfolio BPV is GBP 24,102; Futures BPV is 98.2533; and Liability portfolio BPV is 36,216.

24,102 + (Nf × 98.2533) = 36,216

Nf = 123.3.

The asset manager is over-hedging because a position in 160 long futures contracts is more than what is needed to close the duration gap. Long, or purchased, positions in interest rate futures contracts gain when futures prices rise and rates go down. The anticipated gains from the strategic decision to overhedge in this case further increase the surplus and reduce the cost of retiring the debt liabilities.

这题不太好,c也么错。前提是这个pension fund有钱,它有💰才可以over hedge

关键是现在都under hedged,没钱,利率上升,这个缺口少买单也可以补上。主要是BPV(liab)下降大于BPV(asset),谢谢老师

这题会容易误选C,按照这情况少买点也OK啊,why not

1 个答案
已采纳答案

发亮_品职助教 · 2024年07月12日

不是哈,这道题的基金是有surplus的。资产的Value要大于负债的Value:

The debt liabilities have a market value of GBP 50,652,108

The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bonds having a market value of GBP 64,271,055


资产的Value是64271055,负债的Value是50652108,整体上和负债相比,资产是有盈余的。资产有盈余的情况下,基金可以考虑使用contingent immunization,可以结合对未来利率的预期,故意扩大or缩小资产端的BPV,进而来获利。


本题只不过是负债的Duration更大,资产端买的是短期债券Duration相对较小,所以才导致负债的BPV更大,资产的BPV更小。但本身这道题是有surplus的,可以overhedge or underhedge做主动策略。


当资产与负债的BPV有缺口时,衍生品的作用就是来close这个duration gap的,使得:

资产BPV + 衍生品 BPV = 负债BPV。这样做就是使得duration gap=0,组合达成duration-matching。


但在资产存在surplus时,如本题,基金经理也可以不用fully hedge,可以不让duration gap等于0,可以适当的留一点资产与负债之间的BPV缺口,目的就是享受利率改变带来的盈利,试图增加Surplus。

比如,如果预测利率下降,就让资产的BPV更大,大于负债的BPV,利率下降时,资产可以涨更多,这会扩大surplus。

或者预测利率上升,就让负债的BPV更大,大于资产的BPV,利率上升时,负债会下降更多,这也会扩大surplus。


这些缺口是基金经理故意留出来的,缺口是哪个方向(资产的BPV更大,还是负债的BPV更大),这取决于基金经理的利率预期。缺口能留多大,取决于基金的mandate允许多大的hedge ratio,以及取决于基金经理对自己利率预期的把握。


判断overhedge与underhedge,首先要算出来fully-hedge使得duration gap=0时候的份数,这个份数是比较的benchmark。

如果实际使用的份数比fully hedge的份数更多,那这就是overhedge;

如果实际使用的份数比fully hedge的份数更少,那这就是underhedge,不管long/short方向,关于underhedge与overhedge都是这个判断方法。


本题资产BPV=24,102, 负债BPV=36,216,Futures BPV=98.2533


Fully hedge需要的份数是:(36216-24102)/98.2533 = 123份

基金经理实际使用了160份,这是overhedge。


已知overhedge,还要再结合long/short的方向,才可以判断出基金经理对未来利率的预期。本题是long futures增加资产端的BPV。

已知是long futures来增加资产的BPV,现在是overhedge,则有:

资产BPV + long 160份 futures BPV > Liability


因为只需long 123份,上面就是等号,现在long了更多160份的futures,显然会使得资产端的BPV更大。这个更大的缺口是基金经理故意留下来的,所以可以推测他的利率预期:

他一定是预测未来利率下降

只有预期利率下降,才会故意让资产BPV更大,才可以让资产享受利率下降带来的更多capital gain,进而来扩大surplus。


这是一个套路题型,解题思路就是上面说的,先算fully hedge份数,然后用实际份数做对比判断是overhedge还是underhedge,然后再结合long/short的方向判断对未来利率的预期,只有这一种解题方法哈。

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NO.PZ2023032703000034 问题如下 asset manager is asketo builanmanage a portfolio of fixeincome bon to retire multiple corporate liabilities. The liabilities have a market value of G50,652,108, a mofieration of 7.15, ana BPV of G36,216. The asset manager buys a portfolio of British government bon having a market value of G64,271,055, a mofieration of 3.75, ana BPV of G24,102. The initisurplus of G13,618,947 anthe negative ration gof G12,114 are intentional. The surplus allows the manager to pursue a contingent immunization strategy to retire the at, hopefully, a lower cost tha more conservative ration-matching approach. The ration grequires the manager to buy, or go long, interest rate futures contracts to close the gap. The manager cchoose to over-hee or unr-hee, however, penng on market circumstances. The futures contraththe manager buys is baseon 10-yegilts having a pvalue of G100,000. It is estimateto have a BPV of G98.2533 per contract. Currently, the asset manager hpurchase or gone long, 160 contracts. Whistatement best scribes the asset manager’s heing strategy anthe helview on future 10-yegilt interest rates? The asset manager is: A.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B.over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. C.unr-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will rising. B is correct. The asset manager is over-heing because the rate view is th10-yeyiel will falling. First calculate the number of contracts (Nf) neeto fully hee (or immunize) the liabilities. The generrelationship is:Asset portfolio BPV + (Nf × Futures BPV) = Liability portfolio BPV. Asset portfolio BPV is G24,102; Futures BPV is 98.2533; anLiability portfolio BPV is 36,216.24,102 + (Nf × 98.2533) = 36,216Nf = 123.3.The asset manager is over-heing because a position in 160 long futures contracts is more thwhis neeto close the ration gap. Long, or purchase positions in interest rate futures contracts gain when futures prices rise anrates go wn. The anticipategains from the strategic cision to overhee in this case further increase the surplus anrethe cost of retiring the liabilities. 如题,好像和答案思路刚好相反。哪里不对呢?hee的目的不是为了对冲ration gap吗?那达成对冲目的就好了呀,为什么要为了获利overhee,那不能直接用这个钱直接投asset吗?

2024-08-03 21:36 1 · 回答

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2024-07-10 08:59 1 · 回答

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2023-08-28 08:17 2 · 回答

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