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洪铭泉 · 2024年06月27日

派算出来=0.6 为什么还要1-派呢?

NO.PZ2024021803000049

问题如下:

Given an underlying asset expected to move up or down by 25% over the next year and a risk-free rate of 5%, what is the risk-neutral probability that the asset's price will decrease?

选项:

A.0.25 B.0.4 C.0.6

解释:

u=1.25,d=0.75, π=(1+5%-0.75)/(1.25-0.75)=0.6,1-π=1-0.6=0.4

Given an underlying asset expected to move up or down by 25% over the next year and a risk-free rate of 5%, what is the risk-neutral probability that the asset's price will decrease?

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2024年06月27日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


π是股价上涨的概率,而1-π是股价下跌的概率。

题目最后问的是“what is the risk-neutral probability that the asset's price will decrease?”,意思是问你股价下跌的概率是多少?这个问的是1-π。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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