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vvnsw · 2024年06月14日

为什么第一项没有violate?

NO.PZ2016032801000016

问题如下:

Grey recommends the purchase of a mutual fund that invests solely in long-term US Treasury bonds. He makes the following statements to his clients:

I. "The payment of the bonds is guaranteed by the US government; therefore, the default risk of the bonds is virtually zero."

II. "If you invest in the mutual fund, you will earn a 10% rate of return each year for the next several years based on historical performance of the market."

Did Grey’s statements violate the CFA Institute Code and Standards?

选项:

A.

Neither statement violated the Code and Standards.

B.

Only statement I violated the Code and Standards.

C.

Only statement II violated the Code and Standards.

解释:

C is correct.

This question involves Standard I(C) –Misrepresentation. Statement I is a factual statement that discloses to clients and prospects accurate information about the terms of the investment instrument. Statement II, which guarantees a specific rate of return for a mutual fund, is an opinion stated as a fact and, therefore, violates Standard I(C). If statement II were rephrased to include a qualifying statement, such as "in my opinion, investors may earn . . . ," it would not be in violation of the Standards.

为什么第一项没有violate?

1 个答案

王暄_品职助教 · 2024年06月14日

对于第一项陈述:“The payment of the bonds is guaranteed by the US government; therefore, the default risk of the bonds is virtually zero.”(债券的支付由美国政府担保,因此这些债券的违约风险几乎为零。)这是一个基于事实的陈述。美国财政部发行的长期国债确实是由美国政府背书的,这意味着它们具有极高的信用评级,违约风险极低。因此,这个陈述是准确的,并且没有误导投资者。



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