为什么按计算器是900和1000，不是90和100？
问题如下图：
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解释：
NO.PZ2016091001000007问题如下analyst is evaluate the coupon bonof InIt's a 10-year, option-free, annucoupon bonwith a 4% coupon rate. The bonis expectesell 90%. The after-tcost of is most likely(assume thInc.'s margintrate is 40%):A.5.31%.B.3.19%.C.2.40%.B is correct.Using a financicalculator: N=10, PMT=40, PV=-900, FV=1000, solve for I/Y=5.31%.The after-tcost of bt=yiel1-t)=5.31%(1-40%)=3.19%公司发债融资，融到钱流入公司应该是个正现金流吧，那按计算器为啥是负900。同理到期还债应该是负现金流，按计算器为什么是正par
NO.PZ2016091001000007 问题如下 analyst is evaluate the coupon bonof InIt's a 10-year, option-free, annucoupon bonwith a 4% coupon rate. The bonis expectesell 90%. The after-tcost of is most likely(assume thInc.'s margintrate is 40%): A.5.31%. B.3.19%. C.2.40%. B is correct.Using a financicalculator: N=10, PMT=40, PV=-900, FV=1000, solve for I/Y=5.31%.The after-tcost of bt=yiel1-t)=5.31%(1-40%)=3.19% 老师，我总是弄混pv fv例如这个题，我理解的PV=-1000 因为是present valueFV=900 因为是future value shoulsell 90%但是看答案是反的。。求老师帮我纠正一下，靠死记硬背还是错的
NO.PZ2016091001000007 问题如下 analyst is evaluate the coupon bonof InIt's a 10-year, option-free, annucoupon bonwith a 4% coupon rate. The bonis expectesell 90%. The after-tcost of is most likely(assume thInc.'s margintrate is 40%): A.5.31%. B.3.19%. C.2.40%. B is correct.Using a financicalculator: N=10, PMT=40, PV=-900, FV=1000, solve for I/Y=5.31%.The after-tcost of bt=yiel1-t)=5.31%(1-40%)=3.19% 这里的coupon rate又是乘以PV到底coupon rate乘以哪个可以算出pmt之前有一道题是coupon rate *fv 我也提问了
NO.PZ2016091001000007 3.19%. 2.40%. B is correct. Using a financicalculator: N=10, PMT=40, PV=-900, FV=1000, solve for I/Y=5.31%. The after-tcost of bt=yiel1-t)=5.31%(1-40%)=3.19% 题中没有数字，不知道为什么会带入这两个数
NO.PZ2016091001000007 option free是什么意思呢？
