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Alex · 2024年05月16日

为什么各期EXPOSURE计算都用3%,而不是二叉树概率下加权平均

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NO.PZ201812310200000101

问题如下:

The market price of bond B1 is€875. The bond is:

选项:

A.

fairly valued.

B.

overvalued.

C.

undervalued.

解释:

B is correct.

The following table shows that the credit valuation adjustment (CVA) for the bond is

€36.49, the sum of the present values of expected loss. The steps taken to complete the table are as follows.

Step 1: Exposure at Date T is 1000 (1+r) 4T , where r is 3%. That is, exposure is computed by discounting the face value of the bond using the risk-free rate and the number of years until maturity.

Step 2: Recovery = Exposure × Recovery rate

Step 3: Loss given default (LGD) = Exposure – Recovery

Step 4: Probability of default (POD) on Date 1 is 1.50%, the assumed hazard rate. The probability of survival (POS) on Date 1 is 98.50%.

For subsequent dates, POD is calculated as the hazard rate multiplied by the previous date’s POS.

For example, to determine the Date 2 POD (1.4775%), the hazard rate of (1.50%) is multiplied by the Date 1 POS (98.50%).

Step 5: POS in Dates 2–4 = POS in the previous year – POD

(That is, POS in Year T= POS in year [ T– 1] – POD in Year T.)

POS can also be determined by subtracting the hazard rate from 100% and raising it to the power of the number of years:

(100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000%

(100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225%

(100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672%

(100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337%

Step 6: Expected loss = LGD × POD

Step 7: Discount factor (DF) for Date T is 1 (1+r) T , where r is 3%.

Step 8: PV of expected loss = Expected loss × DF

Value of the bond if the bond were default free would be 1,000 × DF for Date 4 = €888.49.

Fair value of the bond considering CVA = €888.49 – CVA = €888.49 – €36.49 = €852.00.

Because the market price of the bond (€875) is greater than the fair value of €852, B is correct.

A is incorrect because the market price of the bond differs from its fair value. C is incorrect because although the bond’s value if the bond were default free is greater than the market price, the bond has a risk of default, and CVA lowers its fair value to below the market price.

如题

2 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa31 · 2024年05月16日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


因为expected loss这个概念就是每期末违约的数值进行折现,那对应的肯定也就是这个期限的spot rate。

----------------------------------------------
努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

时光伤痕 · 2024年05月16日

我觉得主要看goverment bond yield就行了,二叉树跟这道题好像也没关系吧,他主要是通过这3%算折现因子

Alex · 2024年05月19日

主要是题目中假设了利率曲线不变。

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NO.PZ201812310200000101 问题如下 The market priof bonis€875. The bonis: fairly value overvalue unrvalue B is correct. The following table shows ththe cret valuation austment (CVfor the bonis €36.49, the sum of the present values of expecteloss. The steps taken to complete the table are follows. Step 1: Exposure te T is 1000 (1+r) 4−T , where r is 3%. This, exposure is computescounting the favalue of the bonusing the risk-free rate anthe number of years until maturity. Step 2: Recovery = Exposure × Recovery rate Step 3: Loss given fault (LG = Exposure – Recovery Step 4: Probability of fault (PO on te 1 is 1.50%, the assumehazarrate. The probability of surviv(POS) on te 1 is 98.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multipliethe previous te’s POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate of (1.50%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.50%). Step 5: POS in tes 2–4 = POS in the previous ye– POD (This, POS in YeT= POS in ye[ T– 1] – POin YeT.) POS calso be terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 6: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 7: scount factor () for te T is 1 (1+r) T , where r is 3%. Step 8: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Value of the bonif the bonwere fault free woul1,000 × for te 4 = €888.49. Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €888.49 – CVA = €888.49 – €36.49 = €852.00. Because the market priof the bon(€875) is greater ththe fair value of €852, B is correct. A is incorrect because the market priof the bonffers from its fair value. C is incorrebecause although the bons value if the bonwere fault free is greater ththe market price, the bond ha risk of fault, anCVA lowers its fair value to below the market price. RT

2024-08-09 15:14 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201812310200000101问题如下 The market priof bonis€875. The bonis: fairly value overvalue unrvalue B is correct. The following table shows ththe cret valuation austment (CVfor the bonis €36.49, the sum of the present values of expecteloss. The steps taken to complete the table are follows. Step 1: Exposure te T is 1000 (1+r) 4−T , where r is 3%. This, exposure is computescounting the favalue of the bonusing the risk-free rate anthe number of years until maturity. Step 2: Recovery = Exposure × Recovery rate Step 3: Loss given fault (LG = Exposure – Recovery Step 4: Probability of fault (PO on te 1 is 1.50%, the assumehazarrate. The probability of surviv(POS) on te 1 is 98.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multipliethe previous te’s POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate of (1.50%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.50%). Step 5: POS in tes 2–4 = POS in the previous ye– POD (This, POS in YeT= POS in ye[ T– 1] – POin YeT.) POS calso be terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 6: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 7: scount factor () for te T is 1 (1+r) T , where r is 3%. Step 8: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Value of the bonif the bonwere fault free woul1,000 × for te 4 = €888.49. Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €888.49 – CVA = €888.49 – €36.49 = €852.00. Because the market priof the bon(€875) is greater ththe fair value of €852, B is correct. A is incorrect because the market priof the bonffers from its fair value. C is incorrebecause although the bons value if the bonwere fault free is greater ththe market price, the bond ha risk of fault, anCVA lowers its fair value to below the market price. 为什么不用下面二叉树利率折线呢

2024-04-20 16:26 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201812310200000101 问题如下 The market priof bonis€875. The bonis: fairly value overvalue unrvalue B is correct. The following table shows ththe cret valuation austment (CVfor the bonis €36.49, the sum of the present values of expecteloss. The steps taken to complete the table are follows. Step 1: Exposure te T is 1000 (1+r) 4−T , where r is 3%. This, exposure is computescounting the favalue of the bonusing the risk-free rate anthe number of years until maturity. Step 2: Recovery = Exposure × Recovery rate Step 3: Loss given fault (LG = Exposure – Recovery Step 4: Probability of fault (PO on te 1 is 1.50%, the assumehazarrate. The probability of surviv(POS) on te 1 is 98.50%. For subsequent tes, POis calculatethe hazarrate multipliethe previous te’s POS. For example, to termine the te 2 PO(1.4775%), the hazarrate of (1.50%) is multipliethe te 1 POS (98.50%). Step 5: POS in tes 2–4 = POS in the previous ye– POD (This, POS in YeT= POS in ye[ T– 1] – POin YeT.) POS calso be terminesubtracting the hazarrate from 100% anraising it to the power of the number of years: (100% – 1.5000%)1 = 98.5000% (100% – 1.5000%)2 = 97.0225% (100% – 1.5000%)3 = 95.5672% (100% – 1.5000%)4 = 94.1337% Step 6: Expecteloss = LG× POD Step 7: scount factor () for te T is 1 (1+r) T , where r is 3%. Step 8: PV of expecteloss = Expecteloss × Value of the bonif the bonwere fault free woul1,000 × for te 4 = €888.49. Fair value of the bonconsiring CVA = €888.49 – CVA = €888.49 – €36.49 = €852.00. Because the market priof the bon(€875) is greater ththe fair value of €852, B is correct. A is incorrect because the market priof the bonffers from its fair value. C is incorrebecause although the bons value if the bonwere fault free is greater ththe market price, the bond ha risk of fault, anCVA lowers its fair value to below the market price. 是因为利率没有波动才用的无风险收益吗?如果利率有波动就要用表格里的?

2024-04-10 11:14 2 · 回答

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