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Olivia.W🌸 · 2024年04月26日

$4000+($60−$50)X200shares这里不明白,公式怎么推导的?

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问题如下:

A trader has purchased 200 shares of a non-dividend-paying firm on margin at a price of $50 per share. The leverage ratio is 2.5. Six months later, the trader sells these shares at $60 per share. Ignoring the interest paid on the borrowed amount and the transaction costs, what was the return to the trader during the six-month period?

选项:

A.

20 percent

B.

33.33 percent

C.

50 percent

解释:

The return is 50 percent. If the position had been unleveraged, the return would be 20% = ($60 −$ 50)/ $50. Because of leverage, the return is 50% = 2.5 X 20%.

From another way to think about it: The minimum margin requirement is 40%=1/2.5, so he contribute $4000=40% X (200shares X $50) to the margin. Six month later, the amount in the margin is $6000= $4000+($60−$50)X200shares. Hence, the return is 50% = ($6000−$4000)/$4000

 $4000+($60−$50)X200shares这里不明白,公式怎么推导的?

1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2024年04月26日

同学你好,解析这个公式是把客户的自有资金的期末值计算出来了

期初有4000的自有资金,投资期间由于股价上涨,赚到了(60-50)* 200这么多的钱,这些收益也都是完全属于客户自己的,所以两部分加起来,就是期末的时候客户的自有资金的总金额


但是你完全可以不用解析的方法做,就按常理计算即可

期初50的股票期末涨到60了,总共就赚了 (60-50)*200 = 2000这么多的钱

然后客户实际投资的本金 = 50* 200 /2.5 = 4000

赚的钱除以投资的本金2000/4000 就是投资的收益了

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