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Wyyyyyj · 2024年04月26日

我用老师上课讲的公式,结果与题目不符

NO.PZ2023071902000011

问题如下:

Question

A forex expert notices the following rates:

A riskless arbitrage profit exists that is closest to:

选项:

A.0.49%. B.1.04%. C.0.46%.

解释:

Solution
  1. The expert can secure a riskless arbitrage gain of 0.49%, determined as:

Return on the hedged foreign investment: Sf/d(1 + if)[1/Ff/d]-1 = 1.68(1.055)[1/1.72]-1 = 1.0246 -1= 3.05%.

Riskless arbitrage profit = Domestic risk-free rate – Return on the hedged foreign investment: 3.54% – 3.05% = 0.49%.

Exchange Rate Calculations

• explain the arbitrage relationship between spot and forward exchange rates and interest rates, calculate a forward rate using points or in percentage terms, and interpret a forward discount or premium

专家可以获得0.49%的无风险套利收益,过程如下:

套期保值的境外投资回报率:Sf/d(1 + if)[1/Ff/d]-1 = 1.68(1.055)[1/1.72]-1 = 1.0246 -1= 3.05%。

无风险套利利润=境内无风险利率-套期境外投资回报率:3.54% - 3.05% = 0.49%。

老师上课讲可以用f/s(1+f外)-(1+f本)=1.72/1.68*(1+5.50%)-(1+3.54%)=0.044719。请问是哪里出错了

1 个答案
已采纳答案

笛子_品职助教 · 2024年04月27日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


老师上课讲可以用f/s(1+f外)-(1+f本)=1.72/1.68*(1+5.50%)-(1+3.54%)=0.044719。请问是哪里出错了


Hello,亲爱的同学~

同学这里需要先理解汇率表达式的概念。

对于F/D,F是计价货币,因此profit是以外币计价。

对于D/F,D是本币,因此profit是以本币计价。

因此,如果同学想要使用老师上课讲的方法,需要先把F/D转为D/F。


对比两种解法。

本题解析里的解法:

1)D投本国,拿3.54%收益

2)D先以1.68换成F,再拿F的5.5%利率,最后以1.72的汇率把F换成D。

计算:1.68*(1+5.5%)/1.72-1=3.05%

3) 对比3.54%与3.05%的收益差。



同学的解法:

直接使用原版书里提供的套利利润计算公式。


对于X/Y汇率表达式:


也就是(1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-(1+5.5%)=0.5052%


同学注意,同学给的原始公式,数字是代入错误的。

不过老师说的问题,不只是数字代入错误,请往下看。


实际过程为:

1)F投F国赚5.5%

2)把F用1/1.68的汇率换成D,投D国的3.54%,再以1/1.72的汇率把D换成F。

(1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-1

3)对比1)的5.5%与2)的 (1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-1,两者收益差,为0.5052%。


解析的方法和同学的方法,相对来说,解析的做法更好,因为最后是D,赚的是D。例如中国人赚钱,一般会说,赚多少人民币,而不是说赚多少越南盾。国内的人赚钱的金额用本币衡量才符合常规的习惯。


而同学的解答,赚的是F。


同学注意:原版书上的这个公式,汇率标价法是D/F的时候适用,这个时候D作为price currency,赚的才是D。


而本题的汇率是F/D,如果完全照搬原版书公式,由于本题汇率表达式里,F是price currency,最后赚的是F。这才导致结果会有一点差异。


同学如果一定要套用原版书公式,是需要做汇率换算的,Sd/f=1/1.68,Fd/f=1/1.72,然后代入计算。



所以同学错在,没把F/D的汇率,转化为F/D的汇率。


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