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Maxy · 2024年04月12日

请问这个公式可以解释一下吗?几个数没理解怎么来的

NO.PZ2023091701000011

问题如下:

You have been asked to check for arbitrage opportunities in the Treasury bond market by comparing the cash flows of selected bonds with the cash flows of combinations of other bonds. If a 1-year zero-coupon bond is priced at USD 96.12 and a 1-year bond paying a 10% coupon semi-annually is priced at USD 106.20, what should be the price of a 1-year Treasury bond that pays a coupon of 8% semiannually?

选项:

A.USD 98.10 B.USD 101.23 C.USD 103.35 D.USD 104.18

解释:

The solution is to replicate the 1 year 8% bond using the other two treasury bonds. In order to replicate the cash flows of the 8% bond, you could solve a system of equations to determine the weight factors, Fland F2, which correspond to the proportion of the zero and the 10% bond to be held, respectively.

The two equations are as follows:

(100 × F1) + (105 × F2) = 104 (replicating the cash flow including principal and interest payments at the end of 1 year), and (5 × F2) = 4 (replicating the cash flow from the coupon payment in 6 months.)

Solving the two equations gives us Fl = 0.2 and F2 = 0.8. Thus the price of the 8% bond should be 0.2 (96.12) + 0.8 (106.2) = 104.18.



1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2024年04月12日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学可以参考下估值那门课经典题的这个视频,第一题就是这个题目,何老师有详细的讲解过程,如有疑问,我们可以继续讨论。

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