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KKII · 2024年04月09日

这题A为什么错

NO.PZ2020021601000018

问题如下:

Judith Yoo is a financial sector analyst writing an industry report.

Part of Yoo’s analysis focuses on Company XYZ, a global commercial bank, and its CAMELS rating, risk management practices, and performance.

To assess Company XYZ’s risk management practices, Yoo reviews the consumer loan credit quality profile in Exhibit 3.

Based on Exhibit 3, the trend in impairment allowances is reflective of the changes in:

选项:

A.

impaired assets.

B.

strong credit quality assets.

C.

past due but not impaired assets.

解释:

C is correct.

Impairment allowances have increased proportionately to the increases in the amount of past due but not impaired assets, which may be in anticipation of these past due assets becoming impaired. Impaired assets have decreased each year while strong credit quality assets have increased each year, which suggests lowering impairment allowances as a result of improving credit quality of these financial instruments.

2015 to 2016 change in impaired assets: (9,345/10,235)-1=-8.7%

2015 to 2016 change in strong credit quality assets: (327,345/320,340)-1=2.2%

2015 to 2016 change in past due but not impaired assets: (2,314/2,058)-1=12.4%

2015 to 2016 change in impairment allowances: (-4,500/-4,000)-1=12.5%

2016 to 2017 change in impaired assets: (8,804/9,345)-1=-5.8%

2016 to 2017 change in strong credit quality assets: (338,948/327,345)-1=3.5%

2016 to 2017 change in past due but not impaired assets: (2,823/2,314)-1=22.0%

2016 to 2017 change in impairment allowances: (-5,500/-4,500)-1=22.2%

这题A为什么错




2 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2024年10月09日

同学你好,助教没有太理解你的思考路径

A选项的impaired asset,就是简单的指题干表格中impaired这一行的数值的变化,你为什么要用BASE法则这种更复杂的思路去思考呢?银行这里的科目内部的BASE法则甚至都不是CFA考察的知识点哦

你说的“AllowanceBeg+Provison-Actual loss=AllowanceEnd 其中变化的部分就是净impaired loss 按这个思考就该选A啊”其中变化的部分,就是指的期末allowance减去期初allowance的差额部分吗?这个差额相当于是净的本期实际损失的金额

而impaired asset科目记录的是所有已经计提了减值的资产的总值——其中可能包含了一些虽然计提了减值但又计提了allowance的贷款的金额,也包含了很多确实需要全额计提减值的贷款的值,impaired asset的变化值也只体现本期所有计提了减值的资产的变化量,和上面的本期实际损失的贷款金额之间没有必然关系啊

王园圆_品职助教 · 2024年04月10日

同学你好,解析已经写了完整的计算过程了呢,impaired assets是每年减少的,而 impairment allowances是每年增加的,方向都不一致,后者根本没有反映前者的变化呢

小唐超学霸 · 2024年10月09日

老师你好,我理解解析意思是说变化趋势一致 但是这道题为什么不能用BASE法则来考虑? AllowanceBeg+Provison-Actual loss=AllowanceEnd 其中变化的部分就是净impaired loss 按这个思考就该选A啊

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2024-10-15 13:17 1 · 回答

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2024-08-12 23:49 1 · 回答

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2024-03-04 12:36 1 · 回答

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