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保过 · 2024年03月22日

为啥90天的libor要用1.42?而不是2.21%

NO.PZ2023041003000027

问题如下:

The meeting is with KPS Financial Services, a US based asset manager. KPS wants to increase the equity exposure to the US market in one of its portfolios by $100,000,000. Whitney advises KPS to enter into a one-year equity swap with quarterly payments to receive the return on a US stock index and pay a floating Libor interest rate. The current value of the US stock index is 925.

Exhibit 1 Current Term Structure of Rates (%)

Ninety days have passed since the meetings, Whitney has obtained updated interest rate data that is presented in Exhibit 2. In addition, and the US stock index is at 905.

Exhibit 2 Term Structure of Rates 90 Days Later (%)

The equity swap cash flow for KPS Financial Services’ at 90 days is closest to:

选项:

A.

–$1,807,200.

B.

–$2,232,400.

C.

–$2,517,200.

解释:

CKPS has entered into a swap to receive the equity index return and pay floating Libor. The swap cash flow for a receive-equity, pay-floating is

NA(Equity return – Floating rate)

Return on the equity index = (905 – 925)/925 = –0.021622

The first floating payment is made quarterly. Using a 30/360 day count, we have (0.0142 × 90/360) = 0.003550.

Cash flow from the swap = (–0.021622 – 0.00355) × $100,000,000 = –$2,517,200

为啥90天的libor要用1.42?而不是2.21%

1 个答案
已采纳答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2024年03月22日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


第一笔现金流(The first floating payment)是在第90天的时候,也就是站在0时刻看到的90天的libor 1.42%.


题目中说“Ninety days have passed since the meetings”,意思是站在第90天的时刻去看,未来90天的libor是2.21%,这个实际上对应的是第180天了,所以2.21%对应的已经不是第一笔现金流了。

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