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胖婷肥周 · 2024年03月05日

这两个数我都算出来了,但是为什么是卖呢?

NO.PZ2015121802000054

问题如下:

To evaluate the performance of an investment, an analyst has forecasted the return of an assets and market portfolio on different economic conditions and the probability.

Estimation of an asset:

Estimation of market portfolio:

Assuming the risk-free rate is 5%, the risky asset's beta is 1.2, and market portfolio is correctly priced, which investment decision should the analyst make?

选项:

A.

The analyst should buy the risky asset because its expected return is higher than its required return in equilibrium.

B.

The analyst should short the risky asset because its expected return is less than the expected return on the market portfolio.

C.

The analyst should short the risky asset because its expected return can not compensate for its systematic risk totally.

解释:

C is correct.

The estimated return of risky asset is 6%*(10%) + 10%*(45%) + 15%*(45%) = 11.85%.

The expected return of market portfolio is 3%*(10%) + 12%*(45%) + 14%*(0.45) = 12%.

According to the CAPM, the expected return on the risky asset is 5% + 1.2*(12% - 5%) = 13.4%.

Because the analyst's forecast return on the risky asset is less than its expected return derived from CAPM, the asset is overvalued and the analyst should sell it.

合理定的收益率是13.4%,现在他估计收益率是11.85%,那不就是估出来的收益率不合理,未来会趋向合理,所以会涨所以要买😂😂😂😂

1 个答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2024年03月05日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


你搞反了。合理定价情况下的收益率是根据CAPM模型计算出来的,而实际上估计的收益率不是不合理,是分析师根据目前的经济状况预估出来的,现在这个预估的收益率低于本来应该的合理定价情况下的收益率,资产的价格和收益率是反向变动的,说明目前价格是被高估了,所以应当卖出。

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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