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chyje2007 · 2018年06月26日

问一道题：NO.PZ2017092702000006 [ CFA I ]

  1. CFA I
  2. Quantitative

问题如下图：

选项：

A.

B.

C.

解释：

为什么要先转化成ear，直接计算不可以吗？

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3 个答案

小阳毛儿 · 2018年08月24日

请问N=46.21, 计算器是怎么按出来的？

源_品职助教 · 2018年06月28日

这题我按你写上来的录入数据算了一下，N=16867,28 ,用这个数除以365，再乘以12，得到就是A选项。

你可能计算器没有按对。

源_品职助教 · 2018年06月26日

你说的直接计算是怎么算，截图下你的计算方法，我们看看呢。

chyje2007 · 2018年06月26日

I/Y=3/365,PV=-250000,FV=1000000,PMT=0,求N，最后我算出来N=0.902026，这里N是天数，再转换成月数就可以了，但是却不对，请老师指导

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NO.PZ2017092702000006 问题如下 For a lump sum investment of ¥250,000 investea stateannurate of 3% compounily, the number of months neeto grow the sum to ¥1,000,000 is closest to: A.555. B.563. C.576. A is correct. The effective annurate (EAR) is calculatefollows: E= (1 + Perioc interest rate)m – 1   E= (1 + 0.03/365)365 – 1   EAR= (1.03045) – 1 = 0.030453 ≈ 3.0453%. Solving for N on a financicalculator results in (where FV is future value anPV is present value): (1 + 0,030453）N = FVN/PV = (¥1,000,000/¥250,000）So,N = 46.21 years, whimultiplie12 to convert to months results in 554.5, or ≈ 555 months. 这题我EAR已经算出来是3.045，带入计算器知四求一不知道为什么算出来是46.21.

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