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考拉 · 2024年02月03日

为什么只要通过derivative overlay后,BPV asset>BPV liability,就是预期利率下降。

NO.PZ2023032703000038

问题如下:

Beatriz Maestre is a fixed-income consultant who has been retained by Filipe Ruelas, the CFO of Cávado Produtos Agricolas, SA (Cávado). Cávado is a manufacturer of prepared foods headquartered in Braga, Portugal.

During the meeting, Maestre presents some information about Cávado’s pension fund, which is primarily invested in corporate bonds with a mixture of investment-grade and speculative-grade issues. This information is presented in Exhibit 1.


Ruelas explains that he uses futures contracts on euro-denominated German government bonds to reduce the duration gap between assets and liabilities. However, because the pension fund has only a small surplus and he would like to increase this surplus through active management of the portfolio, he employs a contingent immunization strategy. The fund is currently short 254 contracts based on a 10-year bond with a par value of EUR 100,000 and a basis point value (BPV) of EUR 97.40 per contract.

Given the futures position entered into by the pension fund, Ruelas most likely believes interest rates will:

选项:

A.fall. B.

rise.

C.

remain the same.

解释:

A is correct. The number of futures contracts needed to fully remove the duration gap between the asset and liability portfolios is given by Nf = (BPVL – BPVA)/BPVf, where BPV is basis point value (of the liability portfolio, asset portfolio, and futures contract, respectively). In this case, Nf = (59,598 – 91,632)/97.4 = –328.891, where the minus sign indicates a short position or selling of 329 futures contracts (328,891/1,000). Ruelas has under-hedged, leaving a net position that will benefit from a reduction in interest rates, just as the unhedged position would benefit from a reduction in interest rates. Thus, he must believe interest rates will fall.

B is incorrect because if Ruelas believed rates would rise, he would under-hedge, leaving a net position that would benefit from rising rates.

C is incorrect because if Ruelas believed rates wouldn’t change, he would hedge fully, in case rates moved in an unexpected way.

这是本次复习第二遍做这题,又错了。我想不通为什么只要通过derivative overlay后,BPV asset>BPV liability,就是预期利率下降?

我的思路是利率下降,资产价格应该上升,但如果asset money duration >liabiliy money duration ,asset portfolio value 会更高,liabiliy value会更低,这样不久mismatch 了么? 难道就是为了创造出更多的surplus?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

pzqa31 · 2024年02月04日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


是这样的,在使用衍生品之后,如果Asset BPV仍然 > Liability BPV,这个不相等是基金经理故意留出来的。那一定是基金经理预期,未来的利率会下降。只有未来利率会下降时,这样的缺口会使得资产的价值上升幅度大于负债的价值上升幅度,会扩大养老金的Surplus。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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