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eriko · 2024年02月01日

为什么第一个支付股利的时间没有计算?

NO.PZ2020021203000073

问题如下:

A seven-month call option pays dividends of USD 0.5 in three months and six months. The strike price is USD 40. Assume a constant risk-free rate of 8% per annum (annually compounded) for all maturities. Is it ever optimal to exercise the option before maturity? Explain.

选项:

解释:

It is only optimal to exercise immediately before a dividend payment. Immediately before the three-month payment, the option holder should wait, because there are three months until the next dividend payment and K - K* is greater than the dividend payment:

KK=40401.080.25=0.76>0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{0.25}}=0.76>0.5

Exercise can be optimal immediately before the six-month dividend payment because there is only one month to maturity and K - K* is less than the dividend payment:

KK=40401.081/12=0.26<0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{1/12}}=0.26<0.5

为什么直接计算了3月和六月之间的?

1 个答案

DD仔_品职助教 · 2024年02月03日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


这道题计算了两次啊,第一次行权的时间就是3个月的时候,到下一次行权是6个月的时候,这中间差的是3个月,折的时间我们看的是分红之间的时间差,不是到期日,因为到期日他不是最优的行权时间。

第二次行权的时间是第二笔分红之后,那么还没等到下一次(也就是9个月)分红,option就给到期了(7个月),所以6个月到7个月是折1个月。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

eriko · 2024年03月08日

是不是可以这样理解:每个分红的时间点都有可能是行权时间点,在判断3月分红点是否是行权时间时,将下个分红点6月看作为maturity T?

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NO.PZ2020021203000073问题如下A seven-month call option pays vin of US0.5 in three months ansix months. The strike priis US40. Assume a constant risk-free rate of 8% per annum (annually compoun for all maturities. Is it ever optimto exercise the option before maturity? Explain. It is only optimto exercise immeately before a vinpayment. Immeately before the three-month payment, the option holr shoulwait, because there are three months until the next vinpayment anK - K* is greater ththe vinpayment:K−K∗=40−401.080.25=0.76 0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{0.25}}=0.76 0.5K−K∗=40−1.080.2540​=0.76 0.5Exercise coptimimmeately before the six-month vinpayment because there is only one month to maturity anK - K* is less ththe vinpayment:K−K∗=40−401.081/12=0.26 0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{1/12}}=0.26 0.5K−K∗=40−1.081/1240​=0.26 0.5这里说annually compoun,怎么用e折现呢,e不是连续复利嘛?

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