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daybreak · 2024年01月19日

答案存疑

NO.PZ2018103102000105

问题如下:

Matt is evaluating Company M by using the multistage residual income model. He has forecasted that residual income per share will be constant from year 3 into perpetuity and the short-term ROE is higher than the long-term ROE. He has also estimated the earnings and dividends for the following three years in the following table. What`s the intrinsic value of Company M?

选项:

A.

$27.18

B.

$48.91

C.

$55.43

解释:

C is correct.

考点:Multistage Residual Income Valuation

解析:先计算出每一年的BV

BV1 = BV0 + EPS - Dividends per share = 28.25 + 6.5 - 1.75 = $33,同理可得BV2 = $38.19,BV3 = $43.15

再计算出每一年的RI

RI1 = EPS1 – re*B0 = 6.50-10.9%*28.25 = $3.42,同理可得RI2 = $4.22,RI3 = $2.77

终值的现值:

PV=RI3r×(1+r)3=2.770.109×1.1093=18.63PV=\frac{RI_3}{r\times\left(1+r\right)^3}=\frac{2.77}{0.109\times1.109^3}=18.63

V0=28.25+3.421.109+4.221.1092+2.771.1093+18.63=55.43V_0=28.25+\frac{3.42}{1.109}+\frac{4.22}{1.109^2}+\frac{2.77}{1.109^3}+18.63=55.43

为什么结果里要加上第三年的第一阶段数值,不是应该包含在后边永续阶段里面了吗

1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2024年01月19日

同学你好,你是问为什么RI3不直接作为PVRI计算的起点是么?

你直接把RI3作为PVRI的计算起点,然后PVRI’=RI3/r得到的值就位于第二年年末

然后将这个PVRI‘和RI2一起向前折现2年,加上RI1向前折现1年,再加上B0,也可以得到V0的数值,和这个答案是一模一样的哦

答案的解法只是和李老师上课的解法保持了一致而已,事实上用RI3折现还是用RI4=RI3折现计算,最后的结果都是完全一样的哦

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2024-11-12 18:47 1 · 回答

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