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非恒名 · 2024年01月10日

如果是绝对收益分析,可以选A吗?

NO.PZ2022122701000021

问题如下:

An analyst notes that the fixed-income portfolio manager has strong views about the effects of macroeconomic factors on credit markets and follows a top-down investment process. According to this, the most appropriate risk attribution approach for the fixed-income manager is to:

选项:

A.

decompose historical returns into a top-down factor framework.

B.

evaluate the marginal contribution to total risk for each position.

C.

attribute tracking risk to relative allocation and selection decisions.

解释:

Correct Answer: C

The portfolio is managed against a benchmark, which indicates a relative-risk type of risk attribution analysis. For a top-down investment approach, the analysis should attribute tracking risk to allocation and selection decisions relative to the benchmark.

因为题干里完全没写relative…


1 个答案
已采纳答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2024年01月10日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


题干并没有说benchmark,答案解析跑上来就说against a benchmark确实属于无厘头了。所以我们只能通过排除法来进行选择。

A选项说的是分解return,这和题干risk attribution不符。

B选项错在最后“each postion”,top-down方法不能是each postion,这是bottom-up方法对应的描述。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

非恒名 · 2024年01月11日

哦确实…decompose 历史收益也不是attribution