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丛聪 · 2024年01月04日

FI课后题与讲义例题计算方法不同

课后题问题如下:

An investor is considering the portfolio impact of a new 12-year corporate bond position with a $75 million face value, a 3.25% coupon, current YTM of 2.85%, modified duration of 9.887, and a price of 104.0175 per 100 of face value.


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问题如下:

What is the approximate VaR for the bond position at a 99% confidence interval (equal to 2.33 standard deviations) for one month (with 21 trading days) if daily yield volatility is 1.50% and returns are normally distributed?

选项:

A.

$1,234,105

B.

$2,468,210

C.

$5,413,133

答案讲解如下:A is correct. The expected change in yield based on a 99% confidence interval for the bond and a 1.50 bps yield volatility over 21 trading days equals 16 bps = (1.50 bps × 2.33 standard deviations × √21). We can quantify the bond’s market value

change by multiplying the familiar (–ModDur × ∆Yield) expression by bond price

to get $1,234,105 = ($75 million × 1.040175 × (–9.887 × .0016)).


讲义中问题如下


我的问题是,

这两道题在计算change in YTM时,讲义中用乘以4%的YTM了,但是在课后题的计算中,并没有乘以bond的YTM 2.85%,而是直接计算了。请问是为什么?


1 个答案

pzqa015 · 2024年01月04日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


以讲义为准

这道题是以前年份原版书就有的题,但是后来协会对做法做了修正,以基础班讲义的为准。原来的做法就认为0.8%是y的波动率,但今年协会给改成0.8%是△y/y的波动率。额,如果是几个bps这样表述的,就认为是σ(y),如果是百分比0.8%这样表述的,就认为是σ(∆y/y),这种题考法很固定,一般就是改个volatility的数,不会太灵活,同学注意一下就好了。

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