开发者:上海品职教育科技有限公司 隐私政策详情

应用版本:4.2.11(IOS)|3.2.5(安卓)APP下载

momo · 2023年12月05日

计算器

NO.PZ2017092702000028

问题如下:

An investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.

At t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000.

At t = 1, she receives a dividend of $25 and then purchases three additional shares for $1,055 each.

At t = 2, she receives a total dividend of $100 and then sells the four shares for $1,100 each.

The money-weighted rate of return is closest to:

选项:

A.

4.5%.

B.

6.9%.

C.

7.3%.

解释:

B is correct.

Computation of the money-weighted return, r, requires finding the discount rate that sets the present value (outflows) equal to the present value (inflows).

Solving for r,  1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}   results in a value of r = 6.91%

是输完现金流,按IRR再按CPT就行吗,为什么显示error 5

2 个答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2024年05月06日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


我没有听懂你问的问题。CF1就是C01,CF2就是C02。是一个意思。

----------------------------------------------
加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

Kiko_品职助教 · 2023年12月07日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


是的。正常按是没有问题的。

CF0=-1000;

CF1=-1055*3+25=-3140;

CF2=1100*4+100;

IRR-CPT-=6.91%。

你再试试看是不是数据没清空,或者其他的操作失误哈

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

麦子Echo · 2024年05月04日

为什么不能在CF1那输入-3140要在CO1这输入-3140呢?

  • 2

    回答
  • 0

    关注
  • 240

    浏览
相关问题

NO.PZ2017092702000028问题如下investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to:A.4.5%.B.6.9%.C.7.3%.B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165​=1+r25​+(1+r)24,500​ results in a value of r = 6.91%经典题最后第四年的NPV也求在CF里了,这里应该是360,为什么不用?

2023-10-30 00:24 3 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000028 问题如下 investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to: A.4.5%. B.6.9%. C.7.3%. B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165​=1+r25​+(1+r)24,500​ results in a value of r = 6.91% 求一个这题的计算器按键步骤

2023-05-03 20:31 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000028 问题如下 investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to: A.4.5%. B.6.9%. C.7.3%. B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165​=1+r25​+(1+r)24,500​ results in a value of r = 6.91% 3165和4500哪里来的,能一下吗?,我按cf0=-1000,cf1=-1030.cf2=1100错在哪里呢

2022-12-01 19:37 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000028 问题如下 investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.• t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000. • t = 1, she receives a vinof $25 anthen purchases three aitionshares for $1,055 each. • t = 2, she receives a totvinof $100 anthen sells the four shares for $1,100 each. The money-weighterate of return is closest to: A.4.5%. B.6.9%. C.7.3%. B is correct.Computation of the money-weightereturn, r, requires finng the scount rate thsets the present value (outflows) equto the present value (inflows). Solving for r, 1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}1,000+1+r3,165​=1+r25​+(1+r)24,500​ results in a value of r = 6.91% 请问第一年25块钱收益没有取出来,为什么也要加在现金流里,为什么CF1不是直接用-1055*3?

2022-11-30 00:02 1 · 回答