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小太阳 · 2023年11月23日

老师,oa是不是要从小于1.5m的里面选

NO.PZ2023101601000141

问题如下:

A manager from the structured credit risk desk at a bank is presenting to a group of newly hired risk analysts on calculating cash flows in a securitization structure. The manager illustrates the procedure with the existing collateral pool of loans and the corresponding liabilities, all with a maturity of 5 years, using the following information:

The manager makes additional observations as follows:

The loans in the collateral pool pay a fixed spread of 2.2% over the swap curve

There were no defaults in year 1

The value of the overcollateralization account at the end of year 1 was EUR 0

What is the value of the overcollateralization account at the end of year 2 if there are 8 defaults in year 2?

选项:

A.

EUR 600,000

B.

EUR 1,056,000

C.

EUR 2,544,000

D.

EUR 3,600,000

解释:

C is correct: The value of the overcollateralization account (OC) at end of year 2 (OC2) includes the compounded year-1 value of the OC (OC1), the recovered principal amount at the end of year 2 (R2) and is computed as follows:

OC2 = (1 + swap rate)*OC1 + R2.

Since there is no default in year 1, consider

Min[(0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 - 6,300,000; 1,500,000] = -600,000

As that is negative, the overcollateralization account is entirely depleted at the end of year 1.

For year 2,

First:

Excess spread at the end of year 2 = L – B

where,

L = interest from surviving loans = (0.035 + 0.022)*(100 – 8) * 1,000,000

= EUR 5,244,000

B = bond coupon interest due to both junior and senior bonds

= USD 6,300,000 (given)

Therefore, excess spread = 5,244,000 – 6,300,000 = EUR -1,056,000 (negative).

Second:

Recovery principal amount in year 2 = R2 = 0.45 * 8 * 1,000,000 = EUR 3,600,000, which would flow into the overcollateralization account (OC).

Therefore, since the OC had a net EUR 0 at the beginning of year 2, then the interest shortfall (calculated in the first step above, as negative) should be paid from the OC account, leaving the OC with a net amount = 3,600,000 – 1,056,000 = EUR 2,544,000. (See discussions on page 166-167, [CR-8]).

A is incorrect. = EUR 600,000 is the result obtained by ignoring the number of defaults in year 2 and using an incorrect formula: B – L = 6,300,000 – (0.035 + 0.022)*100*1,000,000 = EUR 600,000

B is incorrect. EUR 1,056,000 is the excess spread as derived in C above.

D is incorrect. EUR 3,600,000 is the recovered principal in year 2 as derived above

老师您好,请问这是哪个知识点里面的内容呀?可以解释一下这道题嘛?谢谢老师

1 个答案

pzqa27 · 2023年11月23日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


这个题是考察waterfall 结构的题目,这个题在经典题中有,同学可以查看下相关的视频讲解,在这个视频的1小时左右会有讲解的。

这个题的大致过程就是让我们算一下overcollateralization account 中在第二年还有多少钱,当资产池中的利息收到后,先分给senior 和Junior这俩层级,然后多余的钱流入overcollateralization account 中,但是这个题给出了每年最多流入overcollateralization account 中1500000元,所以我们要算一下第一年是否有流入,结果发现第一年利息收入没有钱流入OC账户中,第二年利息收入也没有多余的钱给OC账户,但是第二年有违约的贷款,违约贷款回收的钱是有流入的,回收收入是EUR 3,600,000,然后利息收入还欠1,056,000 ,因此这俩一减就是我们的答案C了

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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