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Jen2023 · 2023年10月30日

这道题与经典题1.4本质上有什么区别?

NO.PZ2017092702000028

问题如下:

An investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.

At t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000.

At t = 1, she receives a dividend of $25 and then purchases three additional shares for $1,055 each.

At t = 2, she receives a total dividend of $100 and then sells the four shares for $1,100 each.

The money-weighted rate of return is closest to:

选项:

A.

4.5%.

B.

6.9%.

C.

7.3%.

解释:

B is correct.

Computation of the money-weighted return, r, requires finding the discount rate that sets the present value (outflows) equal to the present value (inflows).

Solving for r,  1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}   results in a value of r = 6.91%

经典题最后第四年的NPV也求在CF里了,这里应该是360,为什么不用?



3 个答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2023年10月31日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


不客气~加油

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

Kiko_品职助教 · 2023年10月31日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


经典题这道题,是4年期的fund,最后把钱都取出来所以最后CF4=4626没有问题。这道题只有两年啊,哪来的CF3呢,在第二年末就已经把股票都卖掉了,第三年就没有现金流了。没有明白你这个360是怎么得出来的呢。

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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

Jen2023 · 2023年10月31日

明白了,谢谢!

Kiko_品职助教 · 2023年10月31日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


本质上是没有区别的。都是每一年发生的现金流折现=NPV。只不过这道题解析用的是另一种方法,cash inflow的PV=cash outflow的PV;

如果这道题按照直接去求IRR的方法比较简便,直接用计算器的IRR进行计算。CF0=-1000;CF1=-1055*3+25=-3140;CF2=1100*4+100;IRR-CPT-=6.91%。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

Jen2023 · 2023年10月31日

不好意思,还是不懂。经典题里老师在求IRR前说还得按CF=4626, 不懂为什么在这道题里不需要按CF3=360?

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