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yan · 2023年10月28日

为什么这道题的不需要乘以税率,上一道题分子要乘以税率

NO.PZ2023020602000041

问题如下:

An analyst collected data about a company as follows:


The preferred stock can be converted to 10,000 common stocks, while the debt is not convertible. The diluted earnings per share is closest to:

选项:

A.1.92 B.1.96 C.2.01

解释:

If the convertible preferred shares were converted to common stocks, there would be no preferred dividends paid. Thus, we should add back the convertible preferred dividends that had previously been subtracted from net income in the numerator.

Basic EPS = (net income – dividend from preferred stocks) / average weighted number of shares issued = (1,000,000 – 1,000,000×0.04) / 500,000= 1.92

Diluted EPS = (net income – dividend from preferred stocks+ dividend from preferred stocks) / (average weighted number of shares issued + shares from conversion of preferred stocks) = (1,000,000 – 1,000,000×0.04 + 1,000,000×0.04) / (500,000+10,000) = 1.96

1.96 > 1.92, diluted EPS is 1.92.



1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2023年10月29日

同学你好,因为题目明确说了“while the debt is not convertible”也就是计算diluted EPS的时候不需要考虑对debt的转换

既然的debt不可转换,那计算diluted EPS的时候就不需要考虑debt带来的interest减少以后对NI的影响——由于只有interest是在税前扣除的(分红是税后扣除),所以只有interest才有税盾的作用,即需要用interest*(1-t)来考虑实际公司由于不用支付利息费用后的净NI影响量,而优先股的分红是没有税盾作用的,所以不需要对其做*(1-t)的处理

税盾作用:举个例子:假设公司要交100的利息,tax rate=25%。虽然支付利息会让公司的NI减少,但是同时也会由于interest使税前利润减少100,从而可以少交100*25%的税费,这个少交的税费又变相的增加了NI的金额——所以综合来看,实际interest对NI的减少作用就没有100那么多,只有100*(1-25%)那么多了

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NO.PZ2023020602000041 问题如下 analyst collecteta about a company follows:The preferretocconverteto 10,000 common stocks, while the is notconvertible. The luteearnings per share is closest to: A.1.92 B.1.96 C.2.01 If the convertible preferreshares were converteto common stocks, there woulno preferrevin pai Thus, we shoula bathe convertible preferrevin thhpreviously been subtractefrom net income in the numerator.Basic EPS = (net income – vinfrom preferrestocks) / average weightenumber of shares issue= (1,000,000 – 1,000,000×0.04) / 500,000= 1.92luteEPS = (net income – vinfrom preferrestocks+ vinfrom preferrestocks) / (average weightenumber of shares issue+ shares from conversion of preferrestocks) = (1,000,000 – 1,000,000×0.04 + 1,000,000×0.04) / (500,000+10,000) = 1.961.96 1.92, luteEPS is 1.92. 它只说了可以转换10,000这么多份。为啥就看出是可以全部转换了?

2023-09-22 05:36 2 · 回答

NO.PZ2023020602000041 问题如下 analyst collecteta about a company follows:The preferretocconverteto 10,000 common stocks, while the is notconvertible. The luteearnings per share is closest to: A.1.92 B.1.96 C.2.01 If the convertible preferreshares were converteto common stocks, there woulno preferrevin pai Thus, we shoula bathe convertible preferrevin thhpreviously been subtractefrom net income in the numerator.Basic EPS = (net income – vinfrom preferrestocks) / average weightenumber of shares issue= (1,000,000 – 1,000,000×0.04) / 500,000= 1.92luteEPS = (net income – vinfrom preferrestocks+ vinfrom preferrestocks) / (average weightenumber of shares issue+ shares from conversion of preferrestocks) = (1,000,000 – 1,000,000×0.04 + 1,000,000×0.04) / (500,000+10,000) = 1.961.96 1.92, luteEPS is 1.92. luteEPS的分子是NI-优先股分红+可转换优先股分红, 。题目中怎么看出来有多少是优先股,多少是可转换优先股的。

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