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赵琳 · 2023年10月14日

请问C为什么不对呢?谢谢!

NO.PZ2016031202000009

问题如下:

Is it true that the expected payoff of the derivative can be discounted at the risk-free rate plus a risk premium?

选项:

A.

No, because a combination of a derivative and the underlying can produce a risk-free asset.

B.

Yes, because most investors are risk averse, they require a risk premium.

C.

No, because most investors are risk neutrality, they do not need a premium.

解释:

A is correct. The expected payoff of the derivative can be discounted at the risk-free rate, because a derivative can be combined with an asset to produce a risk-free position and the derivative price can be obtained by assuming that the investor is risk neutral.

C is incorrect because most investors are risk averse, however the investor's risk aversion does not affect the derivative price.

中文解析:

题干实际问的是为什么对于衍生品的定价时可以用无风险利率

其中的逻辑是这样的:

首先我们知道一个等式:asset+drivative=risk-free asset,即衍生品可以帮助我们消除风险。

然而大多数投资者的是风险厌恶型的,即承担多一点的风险需要一个风险补偿。

所以按理来说,在定价折现的时候应该加上一个风险补偿。

但这个方法对衍生品来说并不适用,原因就在于上面这个公式 asset+drivative=risk-free asset。

因为衍生品可以消除资产的风险,以获得一个certain payoff,所以风险厌恶对于衍生品的定价来说是not relevant,我们就可以假设投资者是风险中性的,以无风险利率折现。

请问C为什么不对呢?谢谢!

1 个答案

pzqa35 · 2023年10月16日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


这道题是说衍生品的定价为什么要使用无风险的利率,这是因为衍生品可以帮我们hedge掉额外风险,那在市场定价中,就只能有一个无风险的收益。这并不是因为大部分投资者是风险中性的,而是因为衍生品本来的特征:asset+drivative=risk-free asset,即衍生品可以帮助我们消除风险。因为衍生品可以消除资产的风险,以获得一个certain payoff,所以风险厌恶对于衍生品的定价来说是无关的。所以C选项说的是因为大部分投资者是风险中性,所以用无风险利率折现是不对的,是因为衍生品能消除风险,才使用无风险利率折现。

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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