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好好学习向前进 · 2023年08月27日

关于B的定价

NO.PZ2023040601000001

问题如下:

Assume that the following one-factor model describes the expected return for portfolios:

E(Rp)=0.10+0.12βp,1E(R_p)=0.10+0.12\beta_{p,1}

Also assume that all investors agree on the expected returns and factor sensitivity of the three highly diversified Portfolios A, B, and C given in the following table:


Assuming the one-factor model is correct and based on the data provided for Portfolios A, B, and C, determine if an arbitrage opportunity exists and explain how it might be exploited.

选项:

解释:

According to the one-factor model for expected returns, the portfolio should have these expected returns if they are correctly priced in terms of their risk:

Portfolio A: E(RA) = 0.10 + 0.12βA,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(0.80) = 0.10 + 0.10 = 0.20

Portfolio B: E(RB) = 0.10 + 0.12βB,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(1.00) = 0.10 + 0.12 = 0.22

Portfolio C: E(RC) = 0.10 + 0.12βC,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(1.20) = 0.10 + 0.14 = 0.24

In the table below, the column for expected return shows that Portfolios A and C are correctly priced but Portfolio B offers too little expected return for its risk, 0.15 or 15%. By shorting Portfolio B (selling an overvalued portfolio) and using the proceeds to buy a portfolio 50% invested in A and 50% invested in C with a sensitivity of 1 that matches the sensitivity of B, for each monetary unit shorted (say each euro), an arbitrage profit of €0.22 -€0.15 = €0.07 is earned.

根据公式算出来的ERb=0.22,市场上的ERb=0.15,不是说明市场上对B的回报低估了么,为什么是B被高估而不是低估

1 个答案

星星_品职助教 · 2023年08月27日

同学你好,

高估和低估指的都是价格。

由于价格是未来现金流的折现求和,分母上的折现率为收益率。所以,两者为反向关系,收益率低估=价格高估。

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NO.PZ2023040601000001 问题如下 Assume ththe following one-factor mol scribes the expectereturn for portfolios:E(Rp)=0.10+0.12βp,1E(R_p)=0.10+0.12\beta_{p,1}E(Rp​)=0.10+0.12βp,1​Also assume thall investors agree on the expectereturns anfactor sensitivity of the three highly versifiePortfolios anC given in the following table:Assuming the one-factor mol is correanbaseon the ta provifor Portfolios antermine if arbitrage opportunity exists anexplain how it might exploite Accorng to the one-factor mol for expectereturns, the portfolio shoulhave these expectereturns if they are correctly pricein terms of their risk:Portfolio E(R= 0.10 + 0.12βA,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(0.80) = 0.10 + 0.10 = 0.20Portfolio E(R= 0.10 + 0.12βB,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(1.00) = 0.10 + 0.12 = 0.22Portfolio E(R= 0.10 + 0.12βC,1 = 0.10 + (0.12)(1.20) = 0.10 + 0.14 = 0.24In the table below, the column for expectereturn shows thPortfolios A anC are correctly pricebut Portfolio B offers too little expectereturn for its risk, 0.15 or 15%. shorting Portfolio B (selling overvalueportfolio) anusing the procee to buy a portfolio 50% investein A an50% investein C with a sensitivity of 1 thmatches the sensitivity of for eamonetary unit shorte(seaeuro), arbitrage profit of €0.22 -€0.15 = €0.07 is earne 老师,您好!答案解析的思路是算出其中错误定价的组合,然后short价格高并long价格低的。我的思路如下Yes, there's arbitrage opportunity. We cshort 2 units of B anlong 1 unit A an1 unit Then, for the factor risk is hee but the expectereturn is 0.2+0.24-0.15*2 = 0.14.即直接根据因子的敏感性对冲,short 2个B并同时long A和C各一份(或者如答案中多空都减半也行),得到的单位收益率都一样7%。但是,感觉两种解答还是有所不同,能不能一下?谢谢了!

2023-08-05 10:39 1 · 回答