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Liam · 2018年05月13日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000030 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


何老师上课的时候说过:在MWRR和TRWRR对比时,如果中间有追加投资的,则现金流增加,MWRR会比较大。为什么在这里不成立呢?


感谢解答。

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已采纳答案

源_品职助教 · 2018年05月13日

因为在这道题目中,在追加投资后的收益率由14%降到了8%,MWRR是考虑到现金流影响的,所以追加投资后如果收益率下跌,那么MWRR就小于TWRR

Liam · 2018年05月14日

我能不能理解为这题其实也不用真的计算,按照您所说的逻辑直接就可以推出答案了。

源_品职助教 · 2018年05月14日

是的,这种方法比较简便

Liam · 2018年05月17日

老师您好,重新看了讲义的例题,也的确是这么解题的:当MWRR有追加投资时,相当于增加了权重,当后期收益率下降时,相当于给较低的收益率更高的权重,MWRR小于TWRR,我理解了。但是还想问一句,如果是回撤投资的话,效果是不是相反?比如给较低的收益率减少了权重,相比TWRR,MWRR反而会升高。

源_品职助教 · 2018年05月17日

你的理解是对的

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NO.PZ2017092702000030问题如下the beginning of Ye1, a funh$10 million unr management; it earns a return of 14% for the year. The funattracts another $100 million the start of Ye2 anearns a return of 8% for thyear. The money-weighterate of return is most likely:A.less ththe time-weighterate of return. B.the same the time-weighterate of return. C.greater ththe time-weighterate of return.A is correct. The money-weighterate of return is founsetting the present value (PV) of investments into the funequto the PV of the funs terminvalue. Because most of the investment came ring Ye2, the measure will biasetowarthe performanof Ye2. Set the PV of investments equto the PV of the funs terminvalue: 10+1001+r=10×1.14×1.08+100×1.08(1+r)210+\frac{100}{1+r}=\frac{10\times1.14\times1.08+100\times1.08}{{(1+r)}^2}10+1+r100​=(1+r)210×1.14×1.08+100×1.08​ Solving for r results in r = 8.53%. The time-weightereturn of the funis =(1.14)(1.08)2−1=10.96\sqrt[2]{{(1.14)}{(1.08)}}-1=10.962(1.14)(1.08)​−1=10.96CF0 -10CF1 1.4-100CF2 100*0.08+10*0.08

2023-11-11 19:27 2 · 回答

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2023-09-06 00:23 1 · 回答

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