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jvniki · 2023年03月02日

看完解析没懂

NO.PZ2016012102000134

问题如下:

Ted Ltd. recently purchased a manufactoring machine for $60,000, which is expected to generate annual cash inflow of $25,000 for six years. The firm will depreciate the machine over six years for accounting purpose. However, the tax authority estimates the machine's useful life of 5 years. Assume tax rate is 40%, and the machines has no salvage value. What is the taxes payable of Ted Ltd. in year 6 if straight-line method is used?

选项:

A.

$6,000.

B.

$5,200.

C.

$10,000.

解释:

C

In year 6, the machine has been fully depreciated for tax purpose. The taxable income is equal to cash inflow, $25,000.

Taxes payable in year 6=$25,000*40%=$10,000.

考点:递延所得税的计算

解析:题目问第六年的taxes payable ,也就是税务局口径下的所得税费用。

Income tax expense = Current tax expense + ΔDTL - ΔDTA

Current tax expense =Taxable income×Current tax rate


accounting base 和tax base 的数字指的是depreciable asset扣掉累积折旧的账面价值。第五年年末的时候,accounting base 账面价值还剩10000,tax base 账面已经是零,所以DTL算出来是4000,第六年年末的的时候accounting base和tax base都是零了,所以第六年就没有DTL了,也就是之前累积的DTL第六年实际上已经回转了。

前期税务局算的折旧费用多,公司交的税少,第六年的时候,税务局算的报表已经没有折旧费用了,所以算的应税所得就高了,公司应该交的税就高了,相当于是前期少交的税这一年要补交上了。所以第六年没有新增的DTL,反而是把以前攒下的DTL回转了,相当于△DTL就等于-4000,所以income tax expense是10,000-4,000=6000

第六年的current tax expense/taxes payable =25000×40%=10000

第六年的Income tax expense=10000+(-4000)=6000

这道题,考的是啥了,为啥算出来6000,又被10000减去了


1 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2023年03月04日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


知识点就是这个公式:Income tax expense = Current tax expense + ΔDTL - ΔDTA


解析里面把整个表列出来其实是为更清楚地讲明白来龙去脉。我们可以不用看这个过程,题目在问:


会计上折旧是6年,税法上是5年,每年的收入是25000,问你第六年的tax payable是多少


题目假设就是这个公司只有这一个资产,而且只有一个折旧费用


对于税法上来说第六年已经折完了,所以是0,所以会计上就是25000,乘以税率40%,就是tax payable。

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