NO.PZ2016012102000133
问题如下:
Ted Ltd. recently purchased a manufactoring machine for $60,000, which is expected to generate annual cash inflow of $25,000 for six years. The firm will depreciate the machine over six years for accounting purpose. However, the tax authority estimates the machine's useful life of 5 years. Assume tax rate is 40%, and the machines has no salvage value. What is the income tax expense of Ted Ltd. in year 6 if straight-line method is used?
选项:
A.$10,000.
B.$5,200.
C.$6,000.
解释:
C is correct.
考点: 递延所得税的计算
解析:题目问第六年的income tax expense,也就是financial accounting的所得税费用。
Income tax expense = Current tax expense + ΔDTL - ΔDTA
Current tax expense =Taxable income×Current tax rate
accounting base 和tax base 的数字指的是depreciable asset扣掉累积折旧的账面价值。第五年年末的时候,accounting base 账面价值还剩10000,tax base 账面已经是零,所以DTL算出来是4000,第六年年末的的时候accounting base和tax base都是零了,所以第六年就没有DTL了,也就是之前累积的DTL第六年实际上已经回转了。
前期税务局算的折旧费用多,公司交的税少,第六年的时候,税务局算的报表已经没有折旧费用了,所以算的应税所得就高了,公司应该交的税就高了,相当于是前期少交的税这一年要补交上了。所以第六年没有新增的DTL,反而是把以前攒下的DTL回转了,相当于△DTL就等于-4000,所以income tax expense是10,000-4,000=6000
第六年的current tax expense=25000×40%=10000
第六年的Income tax expense=10000+(-4000)=6000
请问我用FR的方式去计算第六年的折旧费用为10000,用每年赚取的25000-10000=15000然后直接用15000/40%算出来也等于6000啊,我没考虑什么DTA/DTL的问题,这样有什么不对吗