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绿果仁 · 2022年08月22日

现金流法不行吗

NO.PZ2016012102000152

问题如下:

When market interest rate is 6%, a company issues a $1 million bond with maturity of 3-year, a 5% coupon rate, and annual interest payments.

Which of the following statements is the most correct when the market rate changes to 7% and the carrying value of the bond base on amortized cost.

选项:

A.

The book value of the bonds at the beginning of the Second year will be $990,566.04

B.

The book value of the bonds at the beginning of the Second year will be $973,269.88

C.

The book value of the bonds at the beginning of the Second year will be $981,666.07

解释:

C is correct.

Since the amortized costs will not be affected by the change in market rates, we use 6% to calculate the beginning book value of the bond

N=3 I/Y=6 PMT=1,000,000×5%=50,000 FV=1,000,000 then CPT PV=973,269.88

The new book value= Beginning book value + interest expense -coupon rate=973,269.88+973,269.88×6%-50,000=981,666.07

The ending book value of First Year= the beginning book value of Second Year

考点:债券利息费用的计算

由于摊余成本(amortized costs ), 用的是发行时的市场利率(market interest rate ),不受后续市场利率变化的影响 ,所以我们采用6%计算该债券的期初账面价值.

N=3 I/Y=6 PMT=1,000,000×5%=50,000 FV=1,000,000

CPT PV = 973,269.88

第一年债券的现值,使用计算器计算得出973,269.88


后续每年的账面价值 = 初始债券账面价值 + 利息费用 - 支付的债券票面利息

利息费用 = 初始账面价值 * 债券发行时的市场利息率(market interest rate )

第二年债券账面价值 = 973,269.88 + 973,269.88×6% - 50,000 = 981,666.07

用现金流折现法,最后价格大于100了

1 个答案

Kiko_品职助教 · 2022年08月23日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


用现金流折现法可以的。CF0=0 CF1=50000,CF2=1050000 I=6% 求NPV 答案也是一样的。

最后价格大于100是什么意思我没明白。

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