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yaya273 · 2022年07月18日

这道是怎么理解?T=-6M to T=0 then T=6M?

NO.PZ2018091706000059

问题如下:

Six months ago, a dealer sold CHF 1 million forward against the GBP for a 180-dayterm at an all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Today, the dealer wants to roll this positionforward for another six months (i.e., the dealer will use an FX swap to roll the positionforward).The following are the current spot rate and forward points being quoted for theCHF/GBP currency pair:

The cash flow that the dealer will realize on the settlement date is closest to an:


选项:

A.

inflow of GBP 4,057

B.

inflow of GBP 8,100

C.

outflow of GBP 5,422

解释:

180 days ago, the dealer sold 1 million CHF against the GBP for1.4850. Today, the dealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwardcontract, so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement day. Because these CHFamounts net to zero, the cash flow on settlement day is measured in GBP. The GBPamount is calculated as follows: 180 days ago, the dealer sold CHF 1 million against theGBP at a rate of 1.4850, which is equivalent to buying GBP 673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). That is, based on the forward contract, the dealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement day. Today, the dealer is buying CHF 1 million at a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mid-market spot rate, because this is an FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling GBP 669,344.04 (1,000,000/1.4940). That is, based on the spottransaction, the dealer will pay out GBP 669,344.04 on settlement day. Combining thesetwo legs of the swap transaction, we have:

(1,000,000/1.4850)- (1,000,000/1.4940) = GBP 4,056.63

解析:180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到GBP 673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到:

(1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)= 4056 .63英镑


给的答案并没有考虑rolling contract, 如果考虑rolling contract, 在不考虑有没有正确选项的情况下应该怎么做?


What Is Roll Forward?

Roll forward refers to extending the expiration or maturity of an option, futures contract, or forward by closing the initial contract and opening a new longer-term contract for the same underlying asset at the then-current market price. 

Basics of Roll Forward

A roll forward includes two steps. First, the initial contract is exited. Then, a new position with a later expiry is initiated. These two steps are usually executed simultaneously in order to reduce slippage or profit erosion due to a change in the price of the underlying asset.


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笛子_品职助教 · 2022年07月18日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


:或许这个题本身表述理解起来有点问题,勉强按照T=0 settle做出答案,这样答复勉强可以。

这个题目的描述还是比较清楚的。

6个月前做空了一个forward合约,期限6个月,今天,这个合约到期了。要Roll。

Roll的步骤也讲了,先把旧合约结算掉,再开仓做空一个新的forward。

并非勉强按照T =0 settle做答案。因为这道题问的问题就是,T=0 settle的时候,旧合约的利润是多少。


是提问了两个问题,另一个问题是:如果就是T=-6M进入一个forward,今天是T=0, 并rolling contract, 那T=6M作为 "will"l realize 的 settlement date 应该怎么做并没有给与解释。

题目问的是旧合约,今天的settle,利润是多少。题目并没问,今天新年开的合约,在T=6M后,结算是多少。

所以我们是依据题目问的问题,给出的详细计算方法。


同学的问题是,如果就是T=-6M进入一个forward,今天是T=0, 并rolling contract, 那T=6M作为 "will"l realize 的 settlement date 应该怎么做并没有给与解释。

但是题目问的是,he cash flow that the dealer will realize on the settlement date is closest to an:


同学并未理解题目的意思,题目问的是,在结算日确认的现金流是多少,旧合约结算才有现金流,也就是利润,新开合约没有现金流。题目问的是旧合约,并非新开的这个合约。


至于新开的这个合约,结算日利润如何算,使用同样的做法即可。也就是用今天的开仓价与6个月后的结算价进行比较,计算利润。因为今天无法知道6个月后结算价是多少,所以在今天试无法知道这个新合约的利润的,新合约最后能有多少利润,要6个月后的结算日才知道。


不知道这么说,同学是否理解。


不考虑有没有答案的选项,我只想学习一下这种题型一但出现怎么处理。

其实并不存在“这种题型一旦出现”的情况。本题已经是这种题型可以出现的方式。

理由也是上一问说的,Roll的时候,新合约是没有现金流的,既然新合约没现金流,我们在计算现金流的时候,只计算旧合约就可以了。

新合约只在6个月后的结算日产生现金流,但是今天是无法获知6个月后结算日的价格的,所以新合约的现金流,在今日是算不出,也估计不出来的。

因此,这类题目只有计算旧合约利润是多少,这种情况。根本不会涉及到Roll的新合约。



不知道这样的回答,同学是否懂了,未懂的话可以继续提问。我们尽量让同学满意,也请同学能够理解我们。共同进步。

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笛子_品职助教 · 2022年07月18日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


Roll forward是指,旧合约到期后,开一个新合约。

本题来说,6个月前做空了一个forward,今天到期了,就把旧的forward结算掉,再做空一个新的forward。

本题要求计算,6个月前做空的forward,今天到期结算,利润是多少。那么就计算出这个旧合约的利润就可以。



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2024-09-25 00:21 1 · 回答

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2024-08-30 21:15 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2018091706000059 问题如下 Six months ago, a aler solCHF 1 million forwargainst the Gfor a 180-y term all-in rate of 1.4850 (CHF/GBP). Toy,the aler wants to roll this position forwarfor another six months (i.e., thealer will use FX swto roll the positionforwar.The following are thecurrent spot rate anforwarpoints being quotefor the CHF/Gcurrenpair:The cash flow ththe aler will realize onthe settlement te is closest to an: inflowof G4,057 inflowof G8,100 outflowof G5,422 180ys ago, the aler sol1 million CHF against the Gfor1.4850. Toy, thealer will have to buy CHF 1 million to settle the maturing forwarontract,so the CHF amounts will net to zero on settlement y. Because these CHFamountsnet to zero, the cash flow on settlement y is measurein GBP. The GBPamountis calculatefollows: 180 ys ago, the aler solCHF 1 million againsttheGa rate of 1.4850, whiis equivalent to buying GBP673,400.67(1,000,000/1.4850). This, baseon the forwarcontract, thealer will receive GBP673,400.67 on settlement y. Toy, the aler isbuying CHF 1 million a spot rateof 1.4940 (the mimarket spot rate, becausethis is FX swap). This transaction isequivalent to selling G669,344.04(1,000,000/1.4940). This, baseon the spottransaction, the aler will payout G669,344.04 on settlement y. Combining thesetwo legs of the swaptransaction, we have:(1,000,000/1.4850)-(1,000,000/1.4940) = G4,056.63 解析180天前,该交易商以1英镑兑1.4850瑞郎的价格卖出了100万瑞郎。那么现在,经销商必须购买100万瑞士法郎来结算到期的远期合约,那么结算日的瑞士法郎净额将为零。由于这些瑞士法郎的净值为零,所以结算日的现金流以英镑计算。英镑金额计算如下:180天前,经销商以1.4850的汇率卖出100万瑞郎兑1英镑,相当于买入673,400.67英镑(100万/1.4850)。也就是说,根据远期合同,经销商在结算日收到G673,400.67。今天,该交易商以1.4940瑞郎的即期利率(中间市场即期利率,因为这是一种外汇互换)买入100万瑞郎。这笔交易相当于卖出669,344.04英镑(1,000,000英镑/1.4940)。也就是说,基于现货交易,该交易商将在结算日支付669,344.04英镑。清算这两部分,可以得到: (1000000/1.4850)-(1000000/1.4940)=4056 .63英镑 想问一下合同的到期日为什么使用汇率的中间价来计算 1.4940 不应该是 之前卖了CHF 现在买入CHF 不应该以ask pri买入嘛 还有以后遇到这种题怎么区分 什么时候按照biask汇率计算什么时候按照中间汇率、

2024-07-31 12:23 1 · 回答