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1154750940 · 2022年07月17日

Investment Risk Management No.PZ2016071602000013 (选择题)

NO.PZ2016071602000013

问题如下:

The pension management analysts at Big Inc. use a two-step process to manage the assets and risk in the pension portfolio. First, they use a VAR-based risk budgeting process to determine the asset allocation across four broad asset classes. Then, within each asset class, they set a maximum tracking error allowance from a benchmark index and determine an active risk budget to distribute among individual managers. Assume the returns are all normally distributed. From the first step in the process, the following information is available.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Using VAR as the risk budgeting measure, the emerging markets class has the smallest risk budget.

II. If an additional dollar were added to the portfolio, the marginal impact on portfolio VAR would be greatest if it were invested in small caps.

III. As the maximum tracking error allowance is lowered, the individual managers have more freedom to achieve greater excess returns.

IV. Setting well-defined risk limits and closely monitoring risk levels guarantee that risk limits will not be exceeded.

选项:

A.

I and II only

B.

I,II,III,and IV

C.

II and III

D.

I only

解释:

A is correct. Risk budget is represented by the individual VAR, which is the smallest for emerging markets, so statement I. is correct. The marginal VAR is highest for small caps, so adding one dollar to that asset class would have the largest impact on the portfolio. Statement III. is incorrect, as lowering TEV would give less, not more freedom to manages. Finally, setting risk limits does not ensure they will not be exceeded. Bad luck and exceptions can happen, even if the risk model is correct.

No.PZ2016071602000013 (选择题)

来源: Handbook

The pension management analysts at Big Inc. use a two-step process to manage the assets and risk in the pension portfolio. First, they use a VAR-based risk budgeting process to determine the asset allocation across four broad asset classes. Then, within each asset class, they set a maximum tracking error allowance from a benchmark index and determine an active risk budget to distribute among individual managers. Assume the returns are all normally distributed. From the first step in the process, the following information is available.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Using VAR as the risk budgeting measure, the emerging markets class has the smallest risk budget.

II. If an additional dollar were added to the portfolio, the marginal impact on portfolio VAR would be greatest if it were invested in small caps.

III. As the maximum tracking error allowance is lowered, the individual managers have more freedom to achieve greater excess returns.

IV. Setting well-defined risk limits and closely monitoring risk levels guarantee that risk limits will not be exceeded.


想问一下II,为什么没有把第一列expected return考虑进去呢。讲义上说increase position with higher sharpe ratio,rf是一致的,如果用expected return/MVaR,那么最大的应该是commodities

1 个答案
已采纳答案

DD仔_品职助教 · 2022年07月18日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


根据II的描述,是在考察每在组合里增加1dollar,对于组合的影响应该用谁来衡量。很明显是要用MVAR来衡量,所以直接看MVAR哪一个更大就可以了,不需要考虑expected return了。

同学你说的这个衡量方式和题目问的不是一个概念,你说的这个是在多个资产里,选出最优的资产来做组合,所以肯定选夏普比率最大的,需要用到expected return,但是II没有涉及到选最优,所以只选MVAR最大的就行。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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