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jeffrey19861001 · 2022年03月11日

没有理解为什么BPVT=0?

NO.PZ2018113001000075

问题如下:

Matthew, a junior analyst, manages a portfolio W. The portfolio is fully invested in US TreasuriesMatthew intends to fully hedge this bond portfolio against a rise in interest rates

Exhibit 1 presents selected data on Portfolio W, and the relevant Treasury futures contract, and the cheapest-to deliver (CTD) bond.


Based on Exhibit 1, the number of Treasury futures contracts
Matthew should sell to fully hedge Portfolio W is closest to:

选项:

A.

652

B.

651

C.

745

解释:

B is correct

BPVHR=BPVTBPVPBPVCTD×CF=0111,924.57128.88×0.75=651.33BPVHR=\frac{BPV_T-BPV_P}{BPV_{CTD}}\times CF=\frac{0-111,924.57}{128.88}\times0.75=-651.33

Matthew should sell 651 Treasury bond futures contracts.

中文解析:

本题考察的是利用期货合约调节组合的久期,直接带入上述公式计算即可。注意最后合约份数需要四舍五入取整数,负号代表卖出期货合约。

没有理解为什么BPVT=0?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2022年03月13日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好~

是根据题干的第三句话“Matthew intends to fully hedge this bond portfolio against a rise in interest rates。”,这句话中说想要fully hedge,就是完全不受利率的影响,也就是需要将久期调为0。又因为BPV= MV*MDur*1bp,所以也就是将BPV调节为0

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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