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wilsonxu · 2021年08月21日

logVAR怎么理解？

  1. FRM II
  2. Market Risk Measurement And Management

NO.PZ2018122701000017

问题如下：

The annual mean and volatility of a portfolio are 10% and 40%, respectively. The current value of the portfolio is GBP 1,000,000. How does the 1-year 95% VaR that is calculated using a normal distribution assumption (normal VaR) compare with the 1-year 95% VaR that is calculated using the lognormal distribution assumption (lognormal VaR)?

选项：

A.

Lognormal VaR is greater than normal VaR by GBP 130,400

B.

Lognormal VaR is greater than normal VaR by GBP 175,900

C.

Lognormal VaR is less than normal VaR by GBP 130,400

D.

Lognormal VaR is less than normal VaR by GBP 175,900

解释：

C is correct.

考点 ： Parametric Estimation Approaches

解析：Normal VAR=0.1-(1.645×0.4）=0.558，

Lognormal VAR=1-exp[0.1-(1.645×0.4)]=0.4276

Hence, lognormal VaR is smaller than Normal VaR by 13.04% per year. With a portfolio of GBP 1,000,000, this translates to GBP 130,400 .

老师，VAR是损失，所以应该计算为负数，计算到正数即为收益。logVAR计算为正数应该怎么理解？另外本题VAR算出是负数，logVAR算出是正数，两个怎么相减。请老师帮忙解答，感谢！
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品职答疑小助手雍 · 2021年08月21日

嗨，从没放弃的小努力你好：


两个var都是指损失。不过都用正数来表示损失数，normal的取了绝对值，lognormal的不需要去绝对值，算出来两个正数来进行比较即可。

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