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little_back · 2021年08月13日

请问老师:什么时候用BPV、什么时候用money duration、什么时候用PVBP,有点混乱了。

NO.PZ2019103001000047

问题如下:

Six months later, Hirji reviews Canadian government bonds for a Malaysian institutional client. Prégent and Hirji expect changes in the curvature of the yield curve but are not sure whether curvature will increase or decrease. Hirji first analyzes positions that would profit from an increase in the curvature of the yield curve. The positions must be duration neutral, and the maximum position that the Malaysian client can take in long-term bonds is C$150 million. Hirji notes that interest rates have increased by 100 basis points over the past six months. Selected data for on-the-run Canadian government bonds are shown in Exhibit 2.

Based on Exhibit 2, the amount that Hirji should allocate to the 2-year bond position is closest to:

选项:

A.

C$331 million

B.

C$615 million

C.

C$1,492 million.

解释:

C is correct.

In order to take duration-neutral positions that will profit from an increase in the curvature of the yield curve, Hirji should structure a condor. This condor structure has the following positions: long the 2-year bonds, short the 5-year bonds, short the 10-year bonds, and long the long-term bonds. Hirji’s allocation to the 2-year bond position is calculated as follows:

The C$150 million long-term bonds have a money duration of C$150 × 1,960 = C$294,000

Allocation to 2-year bond = Money duration of long-term bonds/PVBP of 2-year bond

2-year bond position = C$294,000/197 = 1,492.39 or C$1,492 million

请问老师:什么时候用BPV、什么时候用money duration、什么时候用PVBP,有点混乱了。

2 个答案

pzqa015 · 2021年08月15日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


一般情况下的duration matching都是BPV相等。

BPV=P(MV)*D*1bp,

如果可以让PVA=PVL,那么可以用duration相等的条件,此时,duration相等于BPV相等是一样的。


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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

pzqa015 · 2021年08月14日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好

BPV就是PVBP,二者是一个概念。

Money duration=Market value× duration×1,

BPV(PVBP)=Market value× duration×1bp,

所以,BPV(PVBP)=Money duration/10000.

 

请忽略答案给出的解析哈,是没有MV*PVBP这个概念的。

这道题的duration neutral指的是Money duration相等或者PVBP相等。

如果用money duration相等这个条件,则

1.97*MV2Y=19.6*150m,求出MV2Y=1492.39million

如果用PVBP相等的条件,则

1.97*MV2Y*1bp=19.6*150m*1bp,求出MV2Y=1492.39million。


----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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NO.PZ2019103001000047 第一步,根据ration neutral求出买入的2年期和long-term债券各自权重4.78+8.89=1.97x+19.6(1-x),得到x=34%, 1-x=66% 第二步,计算出买入长期债券的money ration=1960*150=294000,再除以权重66%,得出买入portfolia的money ration=445454 第三步,(445454*0.34)/197=769,得出买入769m的2年期债券

2021-03-14 16:16 1 · 回答

\"The C$150 million long-term bon have a money ration of C$150 × 1,960 = C$294,000\",按照讲义说法,Money ration=MV*mofieration,为什么答案这里Money ration=MV*PVBP?

2020-10-19 16:01 1 · 回答

C$615 million C$1,492 million. C is correct. In orr to take ration-neutrpositions thwill profit from increase in the curvature of the yielcurve, Hirji shoulstructure a conr. This conr structure hthe following positions: long the 2-yebon, short the 5-yebon, short the 10-yebon, anlong the long-term bon. Hirji’s allocation to the 2-yebonposition is calculatefollows: The C$150 million long-term bon have a money ration of C$150 × 1,960 = C$294,000 Allocation to 2-yebon= Money ration of long-term bon/PVof 2-yebon2-yebonposition = C$294,000/197 = 1,492.39 or C$1,492 million是不是所有conr中,4个债券的money ration都相等,不仅仅局限于这道题?

2020-03-14 21:53 1 · 回答

为什么2年期的债券的money ration要和长期的想等呢,正常不应该是买入的2年期和长期的money ration之和,于卖出的两个中期之和想等吗

2020-03-10 22:53 1 · 回答