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金融民工阿聪 · 2020年07月14日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016071602000016

问题如下:

A relative value hedge fund manager holds a long position in asset A and a short position in asset B of roughly equal principal amounts. Asset A currently has a correlation with asset B of 0.97. The risk manager decides to overwrite this correlation assumption in the variance-covariance-based VAR model to a level of 0.30. What effect will this change have on the resulting VAR measure?

选项:

A.

It increases VAR.

B.

It decreases VAR.

C.

It has no effect on VAR, but changes profit or loss of strategy.

D.

There is not enough information to answer.

解释:

A is correct. Because the position is both long and short, high correlation implies low risk. Conversely, lowering correlation increases risk.

啥是 variance-covariance-based VAR model 

1 个答案
已采纳答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2020年07月14日

可以直接理解为参数法。

就是var就等于μ-z*σ的绝对值,通过相关性可以把组合的σ算出来。