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张国成 · 2018年11月18日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000006 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

请问为什么不能PV=-250000  FV=1000000  PMT=0  I/Y=3/365  求N
1 个答案
已采纳答案

菲菲_品职助教 · 2018年11月18日

同学你好,是可以这么计算的。再换算成月份就可以了。但要注意,你这么计算出来,不能直接除以30得到月份,而是应该除以(365/12)才能得到正确答案555。因为你第一步I/Y=3/365,就是默认一年365天,如果你直接除以30就是默认一年360天,就容易错选B选项。

下钱的雨 · 2019年06月04日

您好,这个同学的答案为什么一定要在pv25000前加负号呢,按理说pv和fv,应该不涉及现金流流入或流出的情况?因为一开始就是25000通过复利累计到了1000000,和流出25000没关系啊。

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NO.PZ2017092702000006 问题如下 For a lump sum investment of ¥250,000 investea stateannurate of 3% compounily, the number of months neeto grow the sum to ¥1,000,000 is closest to: A.555. B.563. C.576. A is correct. The effective annurate (EAR) is calculatefollows: E= (1 + Perioc interest rate)m – 1   E= (1 + 0.03/365)365 – 1   EAR= (1.03045) – 1 = 0.030453 ≈ 3.0453%. Solving for N on a financicalculator results in (where FV is future value anPV is present value): (1 + 0,030453)N = FVN/PV = (¥1,000,000/¥250,000)So,N = 46.21 years, whimultiplie12 to convert to months results in 554.5, or ≈ 555 months. 这题我EAR已经算出来是3.045,带入计算器知四求一不知道为什么算出来是46.21.

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2023-03-14 11:28 1 · 回答

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