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Beby · 2024年06月11日

选项A为什么不对?

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NO.PZ201604030300004106

问题如下:

6. Based on his complete evaluation, what is Locke’s best course of action with respect to NGM’s management of the Fund’s assets?

选项:

A.

Reduce NGM’s allocation of the Fund’s assets until NGM has demonstrated its compliance with Locke’s conditions.

B.

Eliminate NGM as a manager since Locke cannot be sure that NGM will act fairly and in accordance with the Fund’s IPS.

C.

Maintain NGM’s allocation of the Fund’s assets and concentrate on evaluating managers with larger proportions of the Fund’s assets or with sub-standard performance.

解释:

B is correct.

Locke has a duty to the pension plan beneficiaries to act in their best interests. He would be violating that duty if he continues to employ a manager who does not manage its mandate or demonstrate that it is aware of and complies with its own duties to clients. He must demonstrate his own professional competence by firing the manager.

选项A为什么不对?不能给个整改机会吗?

1 个答案

王暄_品职助教 · 2024年06月11日

这里是一个这样的流程:

Locke之前并没有完成evaluation,case中提到 “he will allow NGM to continue to manage Fund assets until he finishes his evaluation”(意思是在评估结束之前,Locke会继续使用它),因为:

  • 考虑到NGM给他的pension fund带来的high return,diversification,以及political pressure;

Next week, Locke认为如果NGM可以遵循CFA standard且comply with mandate,则可以继续保留NGM。

但case结尾处,Black的回应进一步violate CFA standard:

  • 在事后review 客户的IPS;
  • 错误的分配客户的interest,且错误弥补客户(因为NGM不仅要把错配的interest还给客户,还必须要把这些interest能进一步带来的return还给客户)。

综上所述,整个evaluation完成后,这样的manager是不负责也不遵守CFA standards的,所以为了保护 beneficiaries的利益,需要eliminate NGM