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AgnesWu · 2024年03月02日

关于计算公式

NO.PZ2023071902000011

问题如下:

Question

A forex expert notices the following rates:

A riskless arbitrage profit exists that is closest to:

选项:

A.0.49%.

B.1.04%.

C.0.46%.

解释:

Solution
  1. The expert can secure a riskless arbitrage gain of 0.49%, determined as:

Return on the hedged foreign investment: Sf/d(1 + if)[1/Ff/d]-1 = 1.68(1.055)[1/1.72]-1 = 1.0246 -1= 3.05%.

Riskless arbitrage profit = Domestic risk-free rate – Return on the hedged foreign investment: 3.54% – 3.05% = 0.49%.

Exchange Rate Calculations

• explain the arbitrage relationship between spot and forward exchange rates and interest rates, calculate a forward rate using points or in percentage terms, and interpret a forward discount or premium

我用的(1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-(1+5.5%)=0.5052

因为与答案略有差别,请老师看看公式是否正确

2 个答案

笛子_品职助教 · 2024年03月07日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


为什么我前面写的追问内容都删除了?

修改回答的时候有误操作。

同学这个问题懂了吗。

因为最后手里的货币需要是D,不能是F,因此同学列的公式不对。

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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

笛子_品职助教 · 2024年03月05日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


我用的(1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-(1+5.5%)=0.5052我用的(1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-(1+5.5%)=0.5052

因为与答案略有差别,请老师看看公式是否正确


Hello,亲爱的同学~

对比两种解法。


本题解析里的解法:

1)D投本国,拿3.54%收益

2)D先以1.68换成F,再拿F的5.5%利率,最后以1.72的汇率把F换成D。

计算:1.68*(1+5.5%)/1.72-1=3.05%

3) 对比3.54%与3.05%的收益差。



同学的解法:

直接使用原版书里提供的套利利润计算公式。


对于X/Y汇率表达式:


也就是(1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-(1+5.5%)=0.5052%


实际过程为:

1)F投F国赚5.5%

2)把F用1/1.68的汇率换成D,投D国的3.54%,再以1/1.72的汇率把D换成F。

(1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-1

3)对比1)的5.5%与2)的 (1.72/1.68)✖️(1+3.54%)-1,两者收益差,为0.5052%。


解析的方法和同学的方法,相对来说,解析的做法更好,因为最后是D,赚的是D。例如中国人赚钱,一般会说,赚多少人民币,而不是说赚多少越南盾。国内的人赚钱的金额用本币衡量才符合常规的习惯。


而同学的解答,赚的是F。


同学注意:原版书上的这个公式,汇率标价法是D/F的时候适用,这个时候D作为price currency,赚的才是D。


而本题的汇率是F/D,如果完全照搬原版书公式,由于本题汇率表达式里,F是price currency,最后赚的是F。这才导致结果会有一点差异。


同学如果一定要套用原版书公式,是需要做汇率换算的,Sd/f=1/1.68,Fd/f=1/1.72,然后代入计算。



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