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Rachel · 2023年05月23日

NO.PZ2019010402000001

NO.PZ2019010402000001

问题如下:

A trader is looking for an arbitrage opportunity relating to a bond futures based on following information:

  • Ÿ Quoted futures price=103
  • Ÿ Conversion factor=1.02
  • Ÿ One month remaining to expiration, no coupon during this period
  • Ÿ Quoted bond price=108
  • Ÿ AI0=0.1
  • Ÿ AIT=0.15
  • Ÿ Annual compounded risk-free rate=0.2%

The arbitrage profit is closest to:

选项:

A.

0.8965

B.

2.9075

C.

1.3253

解释:

B is correct.

考点:fixed-income futures定价

解析:

No-arbitrage futures price:

F0(T) =(108+0.1) (1 + 0.002)1/12-0.15=107.968

市场中的futures price=quoted futures price * CF=103*1.02=105.06

arbitrage profit应该是两个futures price之差的现值

所以arbitrage profit= (107.968105.06)(1+0.2%)1/12=2.9075\frac{(107.968-105.06)}{{(1+0.2\%)}^{1/12}}=2.9075

求No-arbitrage futures price画图:(该题合约期间没有coupon,所以PVC=0)

为什么此处市场中的futures price=quoted futures price * CF不需要+AIT了呢?

1 个答案

Lucky_品职助教 · 2023年05月24日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


因为我们现在比较的是无套利公式算出来的future price和市场上的future price,看看两者是否相等。因为市场上的future price 的报价是不含AI的,所以我们通过无套利公式计算出来的future price 也应该是不含AI的,两者才能比较。

而我们在通过无套利公式计算future price的时候,0时刻和期末都是要加上AI,而且这里不是给F0加AI0 ,而是给S0加AI0. 这样才能考虑到所有的现金流。

总结来说,就是在计算future price的时候,我们需要加上起初和期末的AI,而在比较市场上的future price和no arbitrage future price的时候,AIt是不考虑进去的。

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