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mia · 2022年04月10日

没看懂flat natural neutral position because of Lee’s lack of market conviction

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NO.PZ201601050100001401

问题如下:

Identify the most likely approach for Lee to optimally locate Wilson’s portfolio on the currency risk spectrum, consistent with the IPS. Justify your response with two reasons supporting the approach.


选项:

解释:


Passive hedging is not likely because the IPS allows the 3% band around the neutral position. In addition, passive hedging is a rules-based approach, which is contrary to Wilson’s preference.

Active currency management is not likely because the 3% band around the neutral position is too limited for that approach. In many cases, the difference between discretionary hedging and active currency management is more of emphasis than degree. The primary duty of the discretionary hedger is to protect the portfolio from currency risk. Active currency management is supposed to take currency risks and manage them for profit. Leaving actual portfolio exposures near zero for extended periods is typically not a viable option.

Currency overlay is not likely because the 3% band is too small to indicate active currency management in a currency overlay program. In addition, currency overlay programs are often conducted by external, FX-specialized sub-advisers to a portfolio, whereas Lee is a generalist managing a variety of portfolios across asset classes. Finally, currency overlay allows for taking directional views on future currency movements, and a lack of market conviction is noted here.

中文解析:

IPS允许有相比于中性头寸上下3%的波动幅度,因此不是被动管理的方法。

不是主动管理的方法,因为3%的波动区间对于这种方法来说太有限了。在许多情况下,可自由决定的对冲方法和主动管理的方法之间的区别更多的是重点而不是程度。

可自由决定的套期保值者的主要职责是保护投资组合免受货币风险的影响。

而主动管理应该是承担货币风险,并以盈利为目的进行管理,因此将实际投资组合的风险敞口长期保持在接近于零的水平,通常不是一个可行的选择。

不是currency overlay的方法,因为在货币覆盖程序中,3%的幅度太小,不足以表示积极的货币管理。此外,货币覆盖程序通常是由外部的、外汇专业的投资组合次级顾问进行的,而Lee是一个多面手,管理各种资产类别的各种投资组合。最后,currency overlay允许对未来货币走势采取方向性看法,这里指出缺乏市场信念。

没看懂flat natural neutral position because of Lee’s lack of market conviction和discretionary有啥关系

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2022年04月11日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好~

同学问的是理由1的表述哈,这里的意思是说:

该投资组合的仓位是自然中性的,并且因为Lee没有市场信心,这与discretionary hedging的冲方法相符。

这句话其实是题干信息中的最后一句话,想要表达的是对市场没有什么明确且坚定的看法,如果有的话,就可以按照自己的看法来主动采取策略了,所以与discretionary hedging相符合。

其中的风险中性,可以理解为和100%的对冲,因为题干说IPS允许有相比于中性头寸上下3%的波动幅度,虽然有小幅的波动幅度范围,但是因为范围很小,所以也可以理解为仍然是风险中性的额,这一点不用特别纠结,因为这个表述也是题干最后一句话的表述嘛。

Tips:其实主要还是看允许波动的范围,题目中多出现的范围是3%和25%的范围比较多,一般3%我们认为是较小的范围,所以看到这个范围可以更多的考虑discretionary hedging,而25%的比例则考虑是主动管理。

----------------------------------------------
就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

椰子皮 · 2022年08月08日

“此外,货币覆盖程序通常是由外部的、外汇专业的投资组合次级顾问进行的,而Lee是一个多面手,管理各种资产类别的各种投资组合。” 请问Lee为何不能货币管理外包出去?

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NO.PZ201601050100001401 问题如下 Intify the most likely approafor Lee to optimally locate Wilson’s portfolio on the currenrisk spectrum, consistent with the IPS. Justify your response with two reasons supporting the approach. Passive heing is not likely because the IPS allows the 3% banarounthe neutrposition. In aition, passive heing is a rules-baseapproach, whiis contrary to Wilson’s preference.Active currenmanagement is not likely because the 3% banarounthe neutrposition is too limitefor thapproach. In many cases, the fferenbetween scretionary heing anactive currenmanagement is more of emphasis thgree. The primary ty of the scretionary heer is to protethe portfolio from currenrisk. Active currenmanagement is supposeto take currenrisks anmanage them for profit. Leaving actuportfolio exposures nezero for extenperio is typically not a viable option.Currenoverlis not likely because the 3% banis too small to incate active currenmanagement in a currenoverlprogram. In aition, currenoverlprograms are often concteexternal, FX-specializesub-aisers to a portfolio, whereLee is a generalist managing a variety of portfolios across asset classes. Finally, currenoverlallows for taking rectionviews on future currenmovements, ana laof market conviction is notehere.中文解析IPS允许有相比于中性头寸上下3%的波动幅度,因此不是被动管理的方法。不是主动管理的方法,因为3%的波动区间对于这种方法来说太有限了。在许多情况下,可自由决定的对冲方法和主动管理的方法之间的区别更多的是重点而不是程度。可自由决定的套期保值者的主要职责是保护投资组合免受货币风险的影响。而主动管理应该是承担货币风险,并以盈利为目的进行管理,因此将实际投资组合的风险敞口长期保持在接近于零的水平,通常不是一个可行的选择。不是currenoverlay的方法,因为在货币覆盖程序中,3%的幅度太小,不足以表示积极的货币管理。此外,货币覆盖程序通常是由外部的、外汇专业的投资组合次级顾问进行的,而Lee是一个多面手,管理各种资产类别的各种投资组合。最后,currenoverlay允许对未来货币走势采取方向性看法,这里指出缺乏市场信念。

2024-10-09 15:35 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201601050100001401 问题如下 Intify the most likely approafor Lee to optimally locate Wilson’s portfolio on the currenrisk spectrum, consistent with the IPS. Justify your response with two reasons supporting the approach. Passive heing is not likely because the IPS allows the 3% banarounthe neutrposition. In aition, passive heing is a rules-baseapproach, whiis contrary to Wilson’s preference.Active currenmanagement is not likely because the 3% banarounthe neutrposition is too limitefor thapproach. In many cases, the fferenbetween scretionary heing anactive currenmanagement is more of emphasis thgree. The primary ty of the scretionary heer is to protethe portfolio from currenrisk. Active currenmanagement is supposeto take currenrisks anmanage them for profit. Leaving actuportfolio exposures nezero for extenperio is typically not a viable option.Currenoverlis not likely because the 3% banis too small to incate active currenmanagement in a currenoverlprogram. In aition, currenoverlprograms are often concteexternal, FX-specializesub-aisers to a portfolio, whereLee is a generalist managing a variety of portfolios across asset classes. Finally, currenoverlallows for taking rectionviews on future currenmovements, ana laof market conviction is notehere.中文解析IPS允许有相比于中性头寸上下3%的波动幅度,因此不是被动管理的方法。不是主动管理的方法,因为3%的波动区间对于这种方法来说太有限了。在许多情况下,可自由决定的对冲方法和主动管理的方法之间的区别更多的是重点而不是程度。可自由决定的套期保值者的主要职责是保护投资组合免受货币风险的影响。而主动管理应该是承担货币风险,并以盈利为目的进行管理,因此将实际投资组合的风险敞口长期保持在接近于零的水平,通常不是一个可行的选择。不是currenoverlay的方法,因为在货币覆盖程序中,3%的幅度太小,不足以表示积极的货币管理。此外,货币覆盖程序通常是由外部的、外汇专业的投资组合次级顾问进行的,而Lee是一个多面手,管理各种资产类别的各种投资组合。最后,currenoverlay允许对未来货币走势采取方向性看法,这里指出缺乏市场信念。 Wilson requires almost 100% hee ratio in its IPS it prefers a neutrbenchmark over a rule-baseapproach, but it allows limitescretionary management on hee ratio between 97% to 103%, Lee shoulimplement scretionary strategy to hee Wilson's current exposure. However, because Lee's laof currenmarket conviction, he shouluse the currenoverlstrategy well. The currenoverlstrategy means ththe portfolio managers outsourmanaging currenexposures to a firm specializing in FX management.老师麻烦帮忙看一下答案这样写能得分吗?谢谢!

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2022-08-02 06:48 1 · 回答