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wawjbng · 2021年10月28日

问一道题:NO.PZ2020033002000031 [ FRM II ]

问题如下:

One-year BBB-rated bonds have a spread of 2.5% over risk-free Treasuries of the same maturity. It is estimated that all non-credit factors (e.g. liquidity risk, taxes, etc.) have a 1% spread. What is the implied probability of default for this bond, assuming a loss given default rate of 60%?

选项:

A.

1.50%

B.

2.00%

C.

2.50%

D.

3.75%

解释:

C is correct.

考点:Infer Credit Risk from Corporate Bond Prices.

解析:

预期违约的利差为2.5%-1%=1.5%

1.5%/60%=2.5%

请问这题为什么要减掉1%呢,什么时候该减什么时候不该减呢

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2021年10月28日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


2.5%是bond相对于完全无风险的国债的利差,也就是2.5% = non-credit factors + credit factors。


1%是non-credit factors。


我们用2.5%-1%就可以得到credit factors导致的利差是1.5%。credit factors也就是所谓的信用利差,是由发债人的信用状况导致的利差。求违约率的时候一定要扣掉这个1%的non-credit factors。

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冰霄 · 2021年11月10日

最后是依据哪个公式呢 在讲义中一点印象都没有

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