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ciaoyy · 2017年12月24日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000030 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


计算mwrr时,使用计算器,CF0= -10,000,000, CF1=10,000,000*14%-100,000,000= -98,600,000 , CF2=110,000,000*8%=8,800,000, IRR=-91.15。与答案r=8.53%非常不一样,错在哪里?

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已采纳答案

源_品职助教 · 2017年12月25日

最后一期现金流不对,你没有把本金算上,所以你算得IRR是负值。


ciaoyy · 2017年12月25日

如果把最后一期改成0.08(10,000,000(1+14%)+100,000,000),答案仍然不对呀。可以直接帮忙给出最后一期现金流吗?

ciaoyy · 2017年12月26日

看到你对另外一体的解答啦,谢谢,明白了

源_品职助教 · 2017年12月26日

不需要加的,因为T=1时刻,投资者并没有实际收到这笔钱。

源_品职助教 · 2017年12月25日

应该是CF0=-10,CF1=-100,CF2=10*1.14*1.08+100*1.08,这样就对了。


ciaoyy · 2017年12月26日

CF1不需要加上10*14%吗?这个利息收入不是第一年年末的收入吗?

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