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爻爻💨 · 2021年01月23日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000028 [ CFA I ]

问题如下:

An investor performs the following transactions on the shares of a firm.

At t = 0, she purchases a share for $1,000.

At t = 1, she receives a dividend of $25 and then purchases three additional shares for $1,055 each.

At t = 2, she receives a total dividend of $100 and then sells the four shares for $1,100 each.

The money-weighted rate of return is closest to:

选项:

A.

4.5%.

B.

6.9%.

C.

7.3%.

解释:

B is correct.

Computation of the money-weighted return, r, requires finding the discount rate that sets the present value (outflows) equal to the present value (inflows).

Solving for r,  1,000+3,1651+r=251+r+4,500(1+r)21,000+\frac{3,165}{1+r}=\frac{25}{1+r}+\frac{4,500}{{(1+r)}^2}   results in a value of r = 6.91%

请问为什么cf0不是-1000
1 个答案

丹丹_品职答疑助手 · 2021年01月24日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好,这个问题是我们现金流的方向理解问题你可以将所有的投入都理解为负数,那么cf0

当然可以是-1000,但现金流量图里面的其他数字方向也要相应改变。请知悉


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