问一道题：NO.PZ2015121801000051 [ CFA I ]

问题如下：

With respect to risk-averse investors, a risk-free asset will generate a numerical utility that is:

选项：

the same for all individuals.

positive for risk-averse investors.

equal to zero for risk seeking investors.

解释：

A is correct.

A risk-free asset has a variance of zero and is not dependent on whether the investor is risk neutral, risk seeking or risk averse. That is, given that the utility function of an investment is expressed as $U = E (r) - \frac{1}{2} A σ^{2}$ , where A is the measure of risk aversion, then the sign of A is irrelevant if the variance is zero (like that of a risk-free asset).

请问是哪儿的知识点啊

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1 个答案

丹丹_品职答疑助手 · 2020年08月16日

嗨，从没放弃的小努力你好：

同学你好，相关知识点参见r52-Utility Theory and Indifference Curve知识点

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努力的时光都是限量版，加油！

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NO.PZ2015121801000051 问题如下 With respeto risk-averse investors, a risk-free asset will generate a numericutility this: A.the same for all invials. B.positive for risk-averse investors. C.equto zero for risk seeking investors. is correct.A risk-free asset ha varianof zero anis not pennt on whether the investor is risk neutral, risk seeking or risk averse. This, given ththe utility function of investment is expresse U=E(r)− 1 2 A σ 2 , where A is the measure of risk aversion, then the sign of A is irrelevant if the varianis zero (like thof a risk-free asset). b为什么不对？无风险那爽度不是positive的吗？

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2022-11-21 10:00 1 · 回答

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positive for risk-averse investors. equto zero for risk seeking investors. A is correct. A risk-free asset ha varianof zero anis not pennt on whether the investor is risk neutral, risk seeking or risk averse. This, given ththe utility function of investment is expresseU=E(r)− 1 2 A σ 2 , where A is the measure of risk aversion, then the sign of A is irrelevant if the varianis zero (like thof a risk-free asset).B为什么不对？另外如果无风险对风险偏好型投资者来说不是损失了风险部分带来的效用了吗？所以不应该是一样的影响啊

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问一道题：NO.PZ2015121801000051 [ CFA I ]

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