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@_@ · 2020年08月13日

问一道题:NO.PZ2015121801000051 [ CFA I ]

问题如下:

With respect to risk-averse investors, a risk-free asset will generate a numerical utility that is:

选项:

A.

the same for all individuals.

B.

positive for risk-averse investors.

C.

equal to zero for risk seeking investors.

解释:

A  is correct.

A risk-free asset has a variance of zero and is not dependent on whether the investor is risk neutral, risk seeking or risk averse. That is, given that the utility function of an investment is expressed as U=E(r) 1 2 A σ 2 , where A is the measure of risk aversion, then the sign of A is irrelevant if the variance is zero (like that of a risk-free asset).

请问是哪儿的知识点啊

1 个答案

丹丹_品职答疑助手 · 2020年08月16日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学你好,相关知识点参见r52-Utility Theory and Indifference Curve知识点


-------------------------------
努力的时光都是限量版,加油!


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