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snow666_6 · 2020年03月14日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018062007000071 [ CFA I ]

问题如下:

For a risk-averse investor, the price of a risky asset, assuming no additional costs and benefits of holding the asset, is:

选项:

A.

unrelated to the risk-free rate.

B.

directly related to its level of risk.

C.

inversely related to its level of risk.

解释:

C is correct. An asset’s current price, S0, is determined by discounting the expected future price of the asset by r (the risk free rate) plus λ (the risk premium) over the period from 0 to T, as illustrated in the following equation:S0=E(ST)(1+r  +  λ)TS_0=\frac{E\left(S_T\right)}{\left(1+r\;+\;\lambda\right)^T}
Thus, an asset’s current price inversely relates to its level of risk via the related risk premium, λ.

A is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is calculated using the risk- free rate plus a risk premium. B is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is inversely related, not directly related, to its level of risk.

能讲一下这个题目吗?没看懂。
1 个答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年03月14日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学你好,这道题的意思是,对于风险厌恶的投资者,给风险资产定价时,选择折现率应该为无风险利率再加上风险溢价。

这部分在Pricing the Underlying这一节视频开头有详细讲解,同学可以再回顾一下哈。


-------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!


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