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KeynesYang · 2020年03月06日

问一道题:NO.PZ201601200500004405

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

问题如下:

5. If Skylark implements Lee’s proposal to issue $1 billion of debt and use the proceeds to repurchase common shares, its weighted average cost of capital following the buyback will most likely:

选项:

A.

increase to 8.50%.

B.

increase to 8.70%.

C.

decrease to 8.50%.

解释:

C is correct.

The WACC is the weight of debt times the after-tax cost of debt plus the weight of equity times the cost of equity. Skylark currently has a market value of $8 billion of equity and $2 billion of debt, for an 80/20 ratio. Using Exhibit 1, we find that this capital structure has a 5.5% pretax and 3.52% [5.5 × (1 – 0.36)] after-tax cost of debt and a 10.0% cost of equity. Thus the WACC equals (0.2 × 3.52) + (0.8 × 10.0) = 0.70 + 8.0 = 8.7%. After the buyback, Skylark’s capital structure will be 70/30, which results in a 6.0% pretax cost of debt (3.84% after tax) and a 10.5% cost of equity. Thus, the new WACC will be (0.3 × 3.84) + (0.7 × 10.5) = 1.15 + 7.35 = 8.5%, which is a decrease.

1.看了之前的解答,有一个地方我觉得不对,其中,资本结构是按照市场价格来计算的吧,这好像一级强调过,有市场价格用市场价格,而且题干表格里也是用的市场价格(之前解答说要用账面价格)。

2.多发债产生D*T不计入Equity吗?到底怎么处理呢?什么情况下需要计入,什么情况下忽略?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Debrah_品职答疑助手 · 2020年03月07日

同学你好。

1.  计算资本结构是根据账面价值计算的,譬如求公司的资产负债率,D/A就是用的账面值。但是计算WACC是按照market value计算的,Wd=D/A,这里都是用市场价值。注意区分

2. 发债有税盾的好处是因为利息税前列支有节税的效果,相当于公司现金流出少了(只影响公司的现金流,并不影响资产负债表中的权益),公司的价值是公司未来产生现金流折现得到的,那么未来净现金流入上升,公司的价值也就越大。

在计算有税MM理论算企业价值的时候,VL=Vu+D*T,D*T就是税盾带来的好处。但是要留意,MM理论有诸多假设条件才可以成立,因此题目没有提到适用MM理论,还是要严格按照公式计算。

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NO.PZ201601200500004405 increase to 8.70%. crease to 8.50%. C is correct. The WAis the weight of times the after-tcost of plus the weight of equity times the cost of equity. Skylark currently ha market value of $8 billion of equity an$2 billion of bt, for 80/20 ratio. Using Exhibit 1, we finththis capitstructure ha 5.5% pretan3.52% [5.5 × (1 – 0.36)] after-tcost of ana 10.0% cost of equity. Thus the WAequals (0.2 × 3.52) + (0.8 × 10.0) = 0.70 + 8.0 = 8.7%. After the buyback, Skylark’s capitstructure will 70/30, whiresults in a 6.0% pretcost of (3.84% after tax) ana 10.5% cost of equity. Thus, the new WAwill (0.3 × 3.84) + (0.7 × 10.5) = 1.15 + 7.35 = 8.5%, whiis a crease. 看了前面的提问和解答,还是不懂为什么这里就简单认为equity只减少了1billion……是不是做这种发债回购股份的题,仅仅在负债从无到有的时候才考虑加上T计算有杠杆时候的价值,负债由少变多的时候,就不用那种思路了?

2021-04-18 00:19 1 · 回答

发债后产生的tshiel使得公司的value提高 [ EBIT (1-T) / r0 ] ,再用value减去bt就是新的equity (老师讲义上面有个例题,李老师也讲了说新的equity不能直接加上发 的bt,因为equity受到的RE会受益于tshiel 这个新的equity不应该直接用olequity + issue吧?

2020-02-29 00:00 3 · 回答

    请问一下,发债后产生的tshiel使得公司的value提高,这一部分提高不该计入equity吗?E不应该是3:7.36吗?

2019-04-19 07:47 2 · 回答

请问这道题发债后的比例变为37,是说发了1亿的债同时回购了同等市值的股票,所以Equity相应页减少1亿?    

2019-03-31 18:27 1 · 回答