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卡卡西一号 · 2020年03月02日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016082405000105

问题如下:

Suppose a portfolio has a value of $1,000,000 with 50 independent credit positions. Each position has the same amount of $20,000. Each of the credits has a default probability of 2% and a recovery rate of 0%. The credit portfolio has a default correlation equal to 0. The number of defaults is binomially distributed and the 95th percentile of the number of defaults is 3. What is the credit value at risk at the 95% confidence level for this credit portfolio?

选项:

A.

$20,000.

B.

$40,000.

C.

$60,000.

D.

$980,000.

解释:

B The loss given default is $60,000 [3 x ($1,000,000 I 50)]. The expected loss is equal to the portfolio value times and is $20,000 (0.02 x $1,000,000). The credit VaR is defined as the quantile of the credit loss less the expected loss of the portfolio. At the 95% confidence level, the credit VaR is equal to $40,000 ($60,000 minus the expected loss of $20,000).

为什么The loss given default is $60,000 [3 x ($1,000,000 I 50)]这么算?

1 个答案

orange品职答疑助手 · 2020年03月02日

同学你好,这个100万的组合是由50个互相独立的credit position组成的,所以每个credit position的value是2万。题目又说95%的置信度下违约个数是3,而RR是0,所以LGD是2万*3。答案的括号里面是解释这6万怎么来的。