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黄路迦 · 2019年12月08日

问一道题：NO.PZ2018103102000119

  1. CFA II
  2. Equity

问题如下：

Matt is preparing to calculate the intrinsic value of Company M’s equity by using the FCFF model with the constant growth rate of 5% indefinitely. The most recent FCFF is $2,000 million and the company is in the 30% tax bracket. The relevant information is shown in the following table. What `s the value of Company M?

选项：

A.

$ 96,153.85million

B.

$ 100,836.20million

C.

$100,961.54 million

解释：

C is correct.

考点：Valuation Models

解析：先计算WACC = wd × rd × (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re)

= (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1)

= 7.08%

$$V=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.08\%-5\%}=\$100,961.54million$$

FCFF不是研究普通股的吗，为什么算WACC的时候还要把优先股算进来?

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1 个答案

maggie_品职助教 · 2019年12月09日

FCFF是整个公司的所有投资者可以自由支配的现金流，所以融资成本对应的是整个公司的各种要求回报率的加权平均。FCFE才是可供普通股自由支配的现金流。

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NO.PZ2018103102000119 问题如下 Matt is preparing to calculate the intrinsic value of Company M’s equity using the FCFF mol with the constant growth rate of 5% infinitely. The most recent FCFF is $2,000 million anthe company is in the 30% tbracket. The relevant information is shown in the following table. Wh`s the value of Company M? A.$ 96,153.85million B.$ 107,836.20million C.$$101,204.82 million C is correct.考点Valuation Mols解析先计算WA= w× r× (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re) = (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1)= 7.075%V=FCFF0×(1+g)WACC−g=2,000×1.057.075%−5%=$101,204.82millionV=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.075\%-5\%}=\$101,204.82million V=WACC−gFCFF0​×(1+g)​=7.075%−5%2,000×1.05​=$101,204.82million 你好，计算求得V0(EV)=101,204.82后，为什么不是Value=EV-mkt value of bt=101,204.82-15,000

2023-02-19 02:17 1 · 回答

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NO.PZ2018103102000119 如图

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NO.PZ2018103102000119

2021-12-10 10:27 2 · 回答

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