问题如下图：
选项：
A. 
B. 
C. 
解释：
是不是也可以直接用R*（1-T）即8%*（1-15%）
Allen is investment manager, who recently recruitea new customer, Polly. Polly investe$100,000 in asset for 20 years thpromises to offer annuinterest of 8% before twithout any capitgain. But the investment account is expecteto taxe15% annually. Calculate the accruequivalent return on this investment. 6.8% 7.5% 8% A is correct. 考点Effective annureturn 解析先计算FV FV=PV[1+R(1−T)]N=100,000×(1+8%(1−15%))20=372,756.35FV_{}=PV{\lbrack1+R(1-T)\rbrack}^N=100,000\times{(1+8\%{(1-15\%)})}^{20}=372,756.35FV=PV[1+R(1−T)]N=100,000×(1+8%(1−15%))20=372,756.35 依据Effective annureturn公式可得 100,000(1+RAE)20=372,756.35100,000{(1+R_{AE})}^{20}=372,756.35100,000(1+RAE)20=372,756.35，反解这个方程得 RAE=6.8%R_{AE}=6.8\%RAE=6.8% 怎么辨别是accurtax、ferretax和wealth-base
Allen is investment manager, who recently recruitea new customer, Polly. Polly investe$100,000 in asset for 20 years thpromises to offer annuinterest of 8% before twithout any capitgain. But the investment account is expecteto taxe15% annually. Calculate the accruequivalent return on this investment. 6.8% 7.5% 8% A is correct. 考点Effective annureturn 解析先计算FV FV=PV[1+R(1−T)]N=100,000×(1+8%(1−15%))20=372,756.35FV_{}=PV{\lbrack1+R(1-T)\rbrack}^N=100,000\times{(1+8\%{(1-15\%)})}^{20}=372,756.35FV=PV[1+R(1−T)]N=100,000×(1+8%(1−15%))20=372,756.35 依据Effective annureturn公式可得 100,000(1+RAE)20=372,756.35100,000{(1+R_{AE})}^{20}=372,756.35100,000(1+RAE)20=372,756.35，反解这个方程得 RAE=6.8%R_{AE}=6.8\%RAE=6.8% 你这题应该是wealth base，原文是investment account is expecteto taxe15% annually，所以应该是指这个投资账户每年征收15% ，而不是只对interest 征收
Allen is investment manager, who recently recruitea new customer, Polly. Polly investe$100,000 in asset for 20 years thpromises to offer annuinterest of 8% before twithout any capitgain. But the investment account is expecteto taxe15% annually. Calculate the accruequivalent return on this investment. 6.8% 7.5% 8% A is correct. 考点Effective annureturn 解析根据Accrutaxes的公式，可得 FVAT=PV[1+R(1−T)]N=100,000×(1+8%(1−15%))20=372,756.35FV_{AT}=PV{\lbrack1+R(1-T)\rbrack}^N=100,000\times{(1+8\%{(1-15\%)})}^{20}=372,756.35FVAT=PV[1+R(1−T)]N=100,000×(1+8%(1−15%))20=372,756.35 依据Effective annureturn公式可得 100,000(1+RAE)20=372,756.35100,000{(1+R_{AE})}^{20}=372,756.35100,000(1+RAE)20=372,756.35，反解这个方程得 RAE=6.8%R_{AE}=6.8\%RAE=6.8% 这道题怎么看出是用accrutax呢
