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Shawnxz · 2019年04月06日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019010402000015

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


这里为什么要1.2%-0.8%,而不是直接用1.2%呢。看之前的li l例题,不都是直接用FRA rate的收益+本金,直接折现吗?

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已采纳答案

包包_品职助教 · 2019年04月06日

同学你好,这道题是说settleFRA公司收到的金额,settlement是发生在FRA到期的时刻。在2时刻,就是FRA到期的时候,求交割,我们就用(FRA-libor)乘以本金再折现。相当于我们签订了FRA,我们收到FRA乘以本金这么多利息,不签订FRA我们收到libor乘以本金这么多利息,那么签订FRA交割的金额就是两者相减再折现(就相当于算签订FRA带给我们的好处)。原版书也给出了计算公式。Settlement amount at h for receive-floating: NA{[Lh(m)−FRA(0,h,m)]tm}/[1+Dh(m)tm]

 

兔小兔 · 2020年02月11日

还是没有明白为什么要用0、8不用原始的FRA计算呢

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