请问 感觉官方答案描述有点问题
To compare with Dealer B’s quote, she must take the inverse of MXN/GBP, so that she has an offer to sell MXN at a rate of 1/27.0271 = GBP 0.0370 and a bid to purchase MXN at a rate of 1/27.3225 = GBP 0.0366. Dealer A is effectively quoting MXN/GBP at 0.0366/0.0370. Although she can effectively buy pesos more cheaply from Dealer A (GBP 0.0370 from Dealer A, versus GBP 0.0372 from Dealer B), she cannot resell them to Dealer B for a higher price than GBP 0.0366. There is no profit from triangular arbitrage
打粗体的是不是写错了 应该是 she has an offer to buy MXN 和 to sell MXN。。。。。。
另外是不是 if GBP/ MXN : [a, b]
那么 MXN/GBP: [1/b, 1/a]
多xie谢老师
